SSC Combined Graduate Level(CGL) Tier II Exam 2012 Cutoffs and Answers

                                      

Dear Folks,

Hope You all gave your best shot at the last opportunity available to you all. SSC conducted the CGL Tier II exam on 15th and 16th September. There were two sections: Maths and English

Maths was having 100 questions. Level of Maths was comparatively harder than that of last year's. Students found it too difficult to solve the questions and they completed 25-45 questions on an average. Math was based more of geometry, trignometry, mensuration and profit-loss kind of questions. Paper was lengthy and most students felt short of time. Even 85% students were not able to touch half of the questions.

Comparatively English was not so difficult and students were able to do 140-160 questions easily.

Expected Cut-Offs:
Maths : It will be a bit lower than last years'. 60+ - 70 Marks is the expected cut-off for maths this year.
English: As the paper was easy, cut-offs will soar high for this section. Expected is 95-105+ marks

Total Cut-off: 190-200+ for Tier II out of 400 marks
Combined Cut-off of Tier I and Tier II : Gen -- 285-300 marks. Will not be higher than that at any cost
OBC: 250-270
SC/ST - 230-250

Now keep your fingers crossed and do not loose the hope. You might have cleared it this time.

Answer Keys will be provided soon as we get it.

Request you all to share your opinions about the cut-offs in the comment section which will reflect the real picture.

Share your experiences with us..

-- <3

Pp

SSC Combined Graduate level Tier II syllabus and pattern

Tier-II Exam Pattern:

The Tier-II Examination for CGL will also be a Multiple type Question Paper and this examination will be held on 2 days. i.e 15th September, 2012 and 16th September. The Tier-II Examination will be given only those candidates who have Qualified the Tier-I Examination.

The Paper I and II will be compulsory for all the Categories of Posts but Paper III is compulsory for those candidates who applied for the post of statical Investigator and compiler. Find the details of the Parts in the chart below.

Part	Total Subjects	No of Question	Max Marks	Time Duration General Candidates	Time Duration Handicapped Candidates
I	Quantitative Abilities	200	100	2 Hours	2 Hours 40 min
II	General English	200	200
III	Statistics	200	200

Part	Total Subjects	No of Question	Max Marks	Time Duration General Candidates	Time Duration Handicapped Candidates
1	Quantitative Abilities	200	100	2 Hours	2 Hours 40 min
2	General English	200	200
3	Statistics	200	200

 Wish You All the luck friends. Do not leave any stone unturned nowwww.....Iss do or Die time for Us all friends.


-- <3
Pp

SSC Combined Graduate Level(CGL) 2012 Results are out

Dear Friends,

SSC Combined Graduate level 2012 results is out. It is declared on 8th of August. Approx 970000 students have appeared for it. And 117000 students have qualified it. Detailed result is available on SSC website which is as follows:

http://ssc.nic.in/ or you can directly check the result on
http://ssc.nic.in/SSC.html

Shortlisted students will appear for Tier II exam.

The Tier II exam is on 15th and 16th of September. Hope you all have started the preparation.

For any further query write your doubts in Comments section.


-- <3
Pp

IB ACIO II exam 2012 notification

Hey Folks,


How are you all doing buddies........Addidng to exam season, IB ACIO II 2012 exam notification is out too. Fortunately my dad is working in Intelligence Beaureo as a Addittional Director currently, so I am having a bit of knowledge about the Job.Hereith I am mentioning the important dates and other information below. If you do have any querries related to it, Kindly pen it down. I will certainly be answering it at the appropriate time.

The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA's) had issued the Notification for the Recruitment of 750 Assistant Central Intelligence Officers (ACIO's) in the Intelligence Bureau Department.In our previous posts, we have discussed in Detail the application procedure for submitting the Online Application for Intelligence Bureau Recruitment 2012 and Now in this post we will discuss in detail the Syllabus and Exam Pattern for ACIO Exam 2012.

Always Remember:

Last Date to apply Online is : 19th August, 2012

Date of the Written Examination: 23rd Sept, 2012

Intelligence Bureau Exam Pattern for ACIO Exam

The Exam Pattern of Intelligence Bureau ACIO Exam 2012 shall consist of Written test that is both Objective as well as subjective in nature.The Paper-I will be objective and Paper-II will be subjective.The Descriptive Paper (Paper-II) is basically the test of English Language.The total duration of both the Papers ie Paper-I and Paper-II is 1 Hour and 40 minutes

Intelligence Bureau Exam Syllabus 2012

As mentioned above, the scheme of the Intelligence Bureau Exam is Objective Paper and Descriptive Paper.So here is the Detailed Syllabus of what is the composition of the Objective and Descriptive tests.

• Objective Test: The Objective test consists of sections such as General Awareness, General Knowledge, English language, Reasoning and Mathematical Aptitude.In this section, Multiples choice Questions (MCQ's) are asked depending upon the these sections.

• Descriptive test: The Descriptive is nothing but it is basically the test of English Language Writing Skills. In this section, it is expected that students may be asked to write an Essay, Letter of any given theme or topic.

No. Of Vacancies: 750
General: 80
OBC: 334
SC: 225
ST: 111

Age: Max 27 yrs
For more details see Employement news paper of July 21-21 date

For any other querries, please port ur questions as comments. It ill be answered on time.


--

UR PP

SSC CGL 2012 expected cut offs

Dear Friends,

Herewith I am mentioning the expected cuto offs for the Tier I exam of SSC CGL 2012 exam

Expected cutoffs :
GENERAL -- 75+
OBC - 70+
SC/ST - 60+

Hope You all have given your best shot on 1st and 8th July 2012.

Keep on checking this blog for the further updates and start preparing for the Tier II exam which will be on 15th Septmenber.

For further querries, write it as comments in the below comment section. Will answer it suitably for sure friends.

Wish U all the Luck buddiessss.God Bless.


--

PP

SSC CGL 2012 Tier II updates

Dear guys & gals,

 Tier I is over and we are one step closer to our cherished post that we want to get through CGL 2012. Some are ecstatic about their performance, some are happy they will clear the cut off and some are in real dilemma whether they have make it or not. But in spite of all these we shouldn't sit idle and should start our tier 2 preparation from today itself.

Some important information about tier 2:
Paper 1-QA No. of Question-100 Marks-200
Paper2-VA No. of Question-200 Marks-200
Exam date-16th September,2012

All the best guys, let us rock tier 2

GK 79

1. Before becoming US President in 1981, he was head of a labor union.    

a) Hoover
b) Truman
c) Reagan
d) Johnson

The correct answer is c) Reagan

2. What is the full name of the 33rd US President?

a) Harry S. Truman
b) Harry Shine Truman
c) Harry Simon Truman
d) Harry Simpson Truman

The correct answer is a) Harry S. Truman

3. Gangster Al Capone, popular as "Scarface", was known by what other nickname?    

a) Loverboy
b) The senator
c) Snorky
d) The fox

The correct answer is c) Snorky

4. This amendment of the United States Constitution, which is part of the Bill of Rights, guards against unreasonable searches and seizures.    

a) Third Amendment
b) Fourth Amendment
c) Fifth Amendment
d) Sixth Amendment

The correct answer is b) Fourth Amendment

5. This Hungarian-Austrian physician demonstrated that puerperal fever (also known as "childbed fever") was contagious and that its incidence could be considerably reduced by enforcing appropriate hand washing behavior.    

a) Dr. J. Lister
b) Dr. I. Semmelweis
c) Dr. L. Pastuer
d) Dr. J. Kirchner

The correct answer is b) Dr. I. Semmelweis

6. It is generally accepted that the name of these islands of volcanic origin derives from a Latin term, meaning Island of the Dogs.    

a) The Galapagos Islands
b) The Solentiname Islands
c) Corn Islands
d) The Canary Islands

The correct answer is d) The Canary Islands

7. One of the two species, comprising the chimpanzee genus, is the Common Chimpanzee. What is the name of the other species?

a) Kalapuor chimpanzee
b) Highland chimpanzee
c) Lowland chimpanzee
d) Bonobo chimpanzee

The correct answer is d) Bonobo chimpanzee

8. This Hebrew word refers to a non-human, speechless, animated being from Jewish folklore.    

a) Robot
b) Lemech
c) Emes
d) Golem

The correct answer is d) Golem

9. This American actress and stand-up comedian, host of a syndicated talk show, wrote an autobiography, entitled "My Point...And I Do Have One".    

a) Ellen DeGeneres
b) Wanda Sykes
c) Phyillis Diller
d) Joan Rovers

The correct answer is a) Ellen DeGeneres
10. In trigonometry this law, which generalizes the Pythagorean theorem, is a statement about a general triangle, which relates the lengths of its sides to the cosine of a known angle.    

a) The Law of Cosines
b) The Rule of Three
c) The Law of Adjacent Hypotenuses
d) The Archimedean Principle

The correct answer is a) The Law of Cosines

GK 78

1. Their necks and backs of are covered in flexible armor. They are dark brown except for their heads, tails and the lower edges of their shells, which are nearly white. They can reach 130 pounds, but most weigh between 40 and 70 pounds.    

a) Lynx
b) Ocelot
c) Lemur
d) Giant Armadillo

The correct answer is d) Giant Armadillo

2. They are fast animals. They are the size of a rabbit and live underground. They eat grasses, roots, seeds and leafy plants. They have short legs and sharp claws to help them dig their homes.    

a) Swift Fox
b) Prairie Dog
c) Eastern Timber Wolf
d) Lemur    

The correct answer is b) Prairie Dog

3. Their coat varies in color from shades of buff or brown fur with spotted or lined markings in dark brown or black. They are cats, slightly smaller than their cousin, the lynx. They live an average of 12 to 13 years. They can be found from southern Canada to northern Mexico.    

a) Cougar
b) Bobcat
c) Puma
d) Panther    

The correct answer is b) Bobcat

4. Their largest population is found in Florida. They use their two small front flippers to crawl along ocean or river bottoms. They are big, 1500 to 1800 pounds and are thought to live 50 to 60 years in the wild.    

a) Humpback Whale
b) Manatee
c) Walrus
d) Spinner Dolphin    

The correct answer is b) Manatee

5. They are the size of medium domestic dogs and their latin name is Lycaon pictus. They have large, rounded ears and dark brown circles around their eyes. They can live for up to 10 years.    

a) Prairie Dog
b) African Wild Dog
c) Mexican Wolf
d) Swift Fox    

The correct answer is b) African Wild Dog

5. They have the thickest fur in the animal world. They do not have a layer of blubber to help keep it warm. They are the largest member of the weasel family.    

a) Manatee
b) Sea Otter
c) Ocelot
d) Hawaiian Monk Seal    

The correct answer is b) Sea Otter
7. They are the largest member of the dolphin family. Their black bodies are marked with white patches on the underside and near the eyes.    

a) Killer Whale
b) Spinner Dolphin
c) Beluga Whale
d) Sperm Whale    

The correct answer is a) Killer Whale

8. Their faces are pinkish to black, and their bodies are covered with long black hair. They are quadrupedal, which means that they walk on all four limbs, although they can also walk upright for short distances.

a) Gorilla
b) Gibbon
c) Orangutan
d) Chimpanzee

The correct answer is d) Chimpanzee

GK 77

1. He said: "If you want to make a lot of money, invent something that will enable Europeans to cut each other's throats."    

a) Leonardo Da Vinci
b) Thomas Alva Edison
c) Hiram Maxim
d) James Puckle

The correct answer is c) Hiram Maxim

2. In World War I, the machine gun combined with this invention was responsible for most of the battle casualties.    

a) Samuel Colt's invention
b) Alfred Nobel's invention
c) James Puckle's invention
d) James Glidden's invention

The correct answer is d) James Glidden's invention

3. Where was the assault rifle invented?    

a) in Italy
b) in Russia
c) in Germany
d) in Mexico

The correct answer is a) in Italy

4. Which of the following was invented by Hiram Maxim?    

a) The silencer
b) The automatic pistol
c) The sniper rifle
d) The assault rifle

The correct answer is a) The silencer
5. He was responsible for the invention of the caterpillar tractor, which was the basis of the tank.    

a) John Deere
b) Samuel Browning
c) James Puckle
d) James B. Hill

The correct answer is d) James B. Hill

6. The operational jet fighter was invented during this war.

a) World War I
b) World War II
c) The Spanish Revolution
d) The Korean War

The correct answer is b) World War II
7. When was the first automatic revolver produced?    

a) Between 1889 and 1891
b) Between 1961 and 1963
c) Between 1923 and 1924
d) Between 1901 and 1903

The correct answer is d) Between 1901 and 1903

8. In what year was the first mass produced multishot pistol patented?

a) 1879
b) 1862
c) 1912
d) 1835

The correct answer is d) 1835

9. When was a telescopic sight first put on a rifle?

a) 1931
b) 1789
c) 1939
d) 1880

The correct answer is d) 1880

10. Why is the Borchardt pistol of 1893 considered an important invention?    

a) It was the first pistol to have a separate ammo magazine.
b) It was the first pistol to have an effective range of over 60 yards.
c) It was the first pistol that was not made of metal.
d) It was the first pistol approved for use by the Swiss Guard to help guard the Pope.

The correct answer is a) It was the first pistol to have a separate ammo magazine.

GK 76

1. Who founded the Indian National Congress (INC) party?

a) None of these
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) W C Bannerjee

The correct answer is a) None of these

2. The Vajpayee government was defeated in a historic vote on the floor of the Lok Sabha in 1998 by a margin of just one vote! Who was the one MP who violated his party whip and voted against the government thus probably being the one member who caused the fall of the government?

a) Mayawati
b) Saifuddin Soz
c) Giridhar Gomango
d) Subramaniam Swamy

The correct answer is b) Saifuddin Soz
3. The world's first democratically elected Communist Government was formed in which Indian state?

a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) West Bengal
d) Uttar Pradesh

The correct answer is b) Kerala

4. Who was the president of India who had actually threatened to dismiss the prime minister and had (for some time) created a crisis?

a) Dr.Radhakrishnan
b) K R Narayanan
c) VV Giri
d) Zail Singh

The correct answer is d) Zail Singh

5. If the two chambers of the Indian Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) meet for a joint session, who is authorised under the constitution to chair this joint session?

a) Vice-President
b) Chief Justice of India
c) President
d) Speaker

The correct answer is d) Speaker

6. If the President of India has to resign, to whom should he submit his resignation letter?

a) Chief Justice of India
b) Speaker
c) Prime Minister
d) Vice-President--

The correct answer is d) Vice-President

7. The preamble of the Indian Constitution ‘We the people _____’, contains some key terms. This preamble has been amended later. Which of the following words in the preamble was not present when the Constitution first came into effect?

a) Secular
b) Democratic
c) Sovereign
d) Republic

The correct answer is a) Secular

8. Prevention of cow slaughter is a fundamental duty of citizens as prescribed by the Constitution of India.

a) True
b) False

The correct answer is b) False

9. What does the Tenth schedule of the Indian Constitution contain?

a) The list of states and union territories
b) The laws beyond the jurisdiction of the courts
c) The list of recognized languages
d) The Anti-defection act

The correct answer is d) The Anti-defection act

10. Which of the following prime ministers of India did NOT die in office?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Rajiv Gandhi
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
d) Indira Gandhi

The correct answer is b) Rajiv Gandhi

GK 75

1. These are the most elite Special Operation Forces of the US navy. They have fought in major conflicts, including Operation 'Enduring Freedom' - the military response to the terrorist attacks on September 11, 2001.    

a) SEAL
b) GIGN
c) SAS
d) SWAT

The correct answer is a) SEAL

2. This Special Operation Force of the US Army is officially referred to as the 'Combat Application Group'. It was featured in Ridley Scot’s movie, ‘Black Hawk Down’.    

a) SEAL
b) Delta Force
c) SWAT
d) Black Berets

The correct answer is b) Delta Force

3. This specialized paramilitary police unit in the USA, created in the city of Delano, California, in the 1960s, is often called upon for dangerous operations.    

a) SBS
b) SWAT
c) GEK
d) GIGN

The correct answer is b) SWAT

4. This elite combat frogman force, formerly called Decima Flottiglia MAS, is part of the Italian special forces.

a) COMSUBIN
b) GVP/ESR
c) CIAES
d) Jagdkommando

The correct answer is a) COMSUBIN

5. This unit, formed in 1941, is part of the UK special forces. Its badge depicts a sword with an inscription: ‘Who dares wins’.

a) DGSE
b) SAS
c) SEK
d) GEK

The correct answer is b) SAS

6. The Foreign Legion, founded in 1831, is an elite rapid deployment force which consists mainly of foreign volunteers. It is a military formation within the army of which country?

a) France
b) Austria
c) Germany
d) Australia

The correct answer is a) France

7. The fictional character John Rambo, portrayed on the big screen by actor Sylvester Stallone, belongs to what US special forces?    

a) SEAL
b) Red Berets
c) Green Berets
d) Delta Force

The correct answer is c) Green Berets

8. This Australian special force deals with reconnaissance and counter-terrorism. It played a significant role in providing security during the Sydney Olympic Games in 2000.    

a) SASR
b) SAU
c) KS
d) DGSE

The correct answer is a) SASR

9. GEK Cobra, founded in 1972 to protect Jewish immigrants from Palestinian terrorists, is the counter-terrorist unit of this country.    

a) Austria
b) Belgium
c) France
d) Israel

The correct answer is a) Austria
10. The counter-terrorism unit, GSG-9, established on April 17, 1973 and considered to be among the best of such units in the world, is part of the federal police of which country?    

a) Germany
b) United Kingdom
c) Spain
d) Italy

The correct answer is a) Germany

GK 74

1. What is Adjusted Gross Income?

a) your after-tax income
b) your taxable income after deductions
c) your taxable income before deductions

The correct answer is c) your taxable income before deductions

2. Which of the following does not count as an itemized deduction on your income tax?

a) the cost of utilities like water and gas
b) theft losses
c) gambling losses

The correct answer is a) the cost of utilities like water and gas

3. Which of the following isn't a good reason to file a tax amendment?

a) you made a mathematical error
b) you put down the wrong filing status
c) you forgot to count someone as a dependent

The correct answer is a) you made a mathematical error

4. Which form tells your employer all they need to know about your tax-related allowance information?

a) W-2
b) W-4
c) W-10

The correct answer is b) W-4

5. It was unconstitutional for the U.S. government to levy an income tax before the passage of which amendment?

a) 14th Amendment
b) 16th Amendment
c) 18th Amendment

The correct answer is b) 16th Amendment

6. The proposed FairTax would change the U.S. tax system and instead:

a) institute a national sales tax
b) institute a single income tax rate for all taxpayers
c) would only tax the rich

The correct answer is a) institute a national sales tax

7. Which of the following may increase your chances of getting audited?

a) a clean and clearly filled out tax return
b) a mathematical mistake on your tax return
c) sending explanatory notes and receipts before the IRS asks for them

The correct answer is b) a mathematical mistake on your tax return

8. If you sell your old Chevrolet for more than you paid, the profit is subject to:

a) no taxation
b) capital gains tax
c) seller's tax

The correct answer is b) capital gains tax

9. Which of the following is not a way to lower the amount you pay in capital gains taxes?

a) deducting capital losses from your capital gains
b) taking advantage of short-term rather than long-term investments
c) taking advantage of long-term rather than short-term investments

The correct answer is b) taking advantage of short-term rather than long-term investments

GK 73

1. What are comets made of?

a) ice and dust
b) rock
c) hydrogen
d) metal

The correct answer is a) ice and dust

2. What are asteroids closely similar to?

a) comets
b) meteorites
c) planets
d) meteors

The correct answer is b) meteorites

3. What are meteors called that explode with a thunder sound?
   
a) meteoroid
b) shooting star
c) asteroids
d) bolides

The correct answer is d) bolides

4. What happens when a comet goes toward the sun?
   
a) developes a tail
b) brightens
c) melts
d) none of the above

The correct answer is a) developes a tail

5. What type of galaxy is the Milky Way?

a) barred spiral
b) elliptical
c) spiral
d) irregular

The correct answer is c) spiral

6. How many basic types of galaxies are there?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

The correct answer is b) 3

7. What do scientists think are in the middle of the Milky Way?

a) the sun
b) a black hole
c) an asteroid belt
d) a star

The correct answer is b) a black hole

8. What kind of stars are in the Milky Way?
   
a) blue stars
b) red stars
c) white stars
d) both blue and red stars

The correct answer is d) both blue and red stars
9. What do you need for an eclipse to occur?

a) the sun
b) the moon and the sun
c) Earth, the moon, and the sun
d) Earth

The correct answer is c) Earth, the moon, and the sun

10. What kind of eclipse occurs when the sun, moon, and Earth doesn't line up completely?
   
a) total
b) partial
c) annular
d) solar

The correct answer is b) partial

GK 72

1. When a lunar eclipse occurs, what phase should the moon be in?

a) wanning
b) waxing
c) half moon
d) full moon

The correct answer is d) full moon

2. How long does a lunar eclipse last up to?

a) 2 hours
b) 4 hours
c) 8 hours
d) 10 hours

The correct answer is b) 4 hours

3. What are stars mainly made of?

a) balls of gas
b) rock
c) ice
d) light

The correct answer is a) balls of gas

4. What is the term astronomers use to measure the brightness of star?
   
a) light year
b) magnitude
c) scale
d) watts

The correct answer is b) magnitude

5. What is the cloud of material stars are made of called?

a) galaxies
b) nebulae
c) comets
d) meteors

The correct answer is b) nebulae

6. What is the name of the remains of the sun after its nuclear reactions stops?

a) neutron star
b) pulsars
c) black holes
d) white dwarf stars

The correct answer is d) white dwarf stars

7. How many moons does Mercury have?
   
a) none
b) 1
c) 3
d) 6

The correct answer is a) none

8. What is the storm on Jupiter called?
   
a) The Great Red Spot
b) The Great Dark Spot
c) Scooter
d) The Small Red Spot

The correct answer is a) The Great Red Spot

9. Which planet has a moon that is nearly that is half the size of itself?

a) Jupiter
b) Neptune
c) Pluto
d) Venus

The correct answer is c) Pluto
10. Which planet is called the Sister Planet?

a) Mercury
b) Venus
c) Mars
d) Neptune

The correct answer is b) Venus

GK 71

1. How many rings does Uranus have?

a) 8
b) 20
c) 11
d) 5

The correct answer is c) 11

2. Which of Mars's moons is the smallest in the solar system?

a) Phobos
b) Callisto
c) Umbriel
d) Demios

The correct answer is d) Demios
3. What is Earth mostly made of?

a) land
b) mountain ranges
c) water
d) plains

The correct answer is c) water

4. Which planet has the most moons?
   
a) Jupiter
b) Saturn
c) Uranus
d) Neptune

The correct answer is b) Saturn

5. Which storm disappeared on Neptune?
   
a) Dark Spot 2
b) The Great Dark Spot
c) The Great Red Spot
d) Scooter

The correct answer is b) The Great Dark Spot

6. What did Galileo's father want him to become?
   
a) doctor
b) scientist
c) astronomer
d) teacher

The correct answer is a) doctor

7. When Galileo was released from the Inquisition, what did they put him under?
   
a) burned him
b) put him in jail
c) execution
d) house arrest

The correct answer is d) house arrest

8. What instrument did Galileo improve?
   
a) telescope
b) magnifying glass
c) microscope
d) glasses

The correct answer is a) telescope

9. When Galileo left Pisa, where did he go to teach?

a) University of Florence
b) University of Rome
c) University of Italy
d) University of Padua

The correct answer is d) University of Padua

GK 70

1. The greatest danger facing most endangered species is...

a) Hunting
b) Habitat loss
c) Disease
d) Capture for the pet trade

The correct answer is b) Habitat loss

2. Which of the following is not listed as an endangered species under the U.S. Endangered Species Act?

a) Cheetah
b) Bald eagle
c) Blue whale
d) Hawaiian monk seal

The correct answer is b) Bald eagle
3. The Bronx Zoo once had a picture frame covered by cloth. It was labelled 'The most dangerous species in the world'. If you removed the cover, you saw...

a) A great white shark
b) A mirror
c) A virus
d) A mountain lion

The correct answer is b) A mirror

4. Which of the following substances is not biodegradable?

a) Paper
b) Food refuse
c) Styrofoam
d) Sawdust

The correct answer is c) Styrofoam

5. What environmental problem is the result of chemical reactions in the atmosphere that involve sulfur?

a) Deforestation
b) Acid rain
c) Holes in the ozone layer
d) Smog

The correct answer is b) Acid rain

6. What chemicals have been banned in most of the world because of their role in destroying the ozone layer?

a) DDT
b) Metal oxides
c) Peroxides
d) Chlorofluorocarbons

The correct answer is d) Chlorofluorocarbons

7. Who wrote 'Silent Spring', the first book documenting many of the problems caused by pesticides?

a) Aldo Leopold
b) Henry David Thoreau
c) Rachel Carson
d) Jaques Cousteau

The correct answer is c) Rachel Carson

8. Which of the following is not a renewable resource?

a) Timber
b) Wild mushrooms
c) Fish
d) Gold

The correct answer is d) Gold
9. Which of the following practices produces the most organic water pollution?

a) Intensive livestock farming
b) Paper mills
c) Recreational boating
d) Humans bathing in the water

The correct answer is a) Intensive livestock farming

10. 'Ecology' comes from two Greek words meaning...

a) Natural life
b) Study of the world
c) Study of the house
d) Nature study

The correct answer is c) Study of the house

GK 69

1. Which of the following concepts are referred by the field of Finance?

a. Time
b. Money
c. Risk
d. Time, Money and Risk and how they are interrelated

The correct answer is d. Time, Money and Risk and how they are interrelated
   
2. Which of the following statements does the term Finance incorporates?

a. The study of money and other assets
b. The management and control of those assets
c. The science of managing money
d. All of them

The correct answer is d. All of them
   
3.  As a verb, "to finance" is to provide funds for business or for an individual's large purchases (car, home, etc.).

a. True
b. False

The correct answer is a. True

4. Which of the following professions deals with Finance?

a. Doctors
b. Engineers
c. Sports
d. Chartered Accountants
   
The correct answer is d. Chartered Accountants

5. Capital, in the financial sense, is the money which gives the business the power to buy goods to be used in the production of other goods or the offering of a service.

a. True
b. False

The correct answer is a. True
   
6. Which term is used for "Money which is used to purchase assets that will remain permanently in the business and help it to make a profit"?

a. Fixed Capital
b. Working Capital
c. Capital Budget
d. Cash Budget

The correct answer is a. Fixed Capital
   
7. Credit gives the customer the opportunity to buy goods and services, and pay for them at a later date.

a. True
b. False

The correct answer is a. True   
8.  The method of Depreciation for Intangible Assets is known as?

a. Appreciation
b. Amortization
c. Straight Line
d. Depreciation
   
The correct answer is b. Amortization
9.  How inflation hits a country economy?

a. when demand for a commodity is more than supply for the commodity
b. when supply more than demand
c. when change in the price of the commodity

The correct answer is a. when demand for a commodity is more than supply for the commodity
   
10. Who was the father of accounting ?

a. F.W.Taylor
b. Luca Pacioli
c. John Keynes
d. Adam Smith

The correct answer is b. Luca Pacioli

GK 68

1. A stock market is also called

a. free market
b. open market
c. equity market
d. sports market
   
The correct answer is c. equity market

2. What is done in the stock market?

a. trading
b. singing
c. dancing
d. rocking

The correct answer is a. trading
   
3. The estimated price of the stock market is at

a. 50 trillion dollars
b. 51 trillion dollars
c. 52 trillion dollars
d. 53 trillion dollars

The correct answer is b. 51 trillion dollars
   
4. The value of the derivative market is stated in:

a. standard values
b. expert values
c. nominal values
d. notional values
The correct answer is d. notional values

5. A fixed income security is also called:

a. decided value
b. basic value
c. actual value
d. fixed value

The correct answer is c. actual value   

6. Actual trades are based on this paradign

a. free economy
b. auction market
c. laissez faire
d. closed market

The correct answer is b. auction market
   
7. The New York Stock Exchange is called:

a. situational change
b. nominal change
c. physical change
d. chemical change

The correct answer is c. physical change
   
8. This record is sent back to the brokerage firm

a. tape
b. song
c. disc
d. file

The correct answer is a. tape
   
9. Computers performs this function :

a. design trading
b. system trading
c. file trading
d. program trading

The correct answer is d. program trading
   
10. The NYSE is also called a listed exchange

a. True
b. False

The correct answer is a. True

GK 67

1. Which nation is referred to as " Giant of Africa " ?

a) Nigeria
b) South Africa
c) Kenya
d) Tanzania

The correct answer is a) Nigeria

2. Which country is called "The Land O'Cakes" ?

a) Scotland
b) Belgium
c) Wales
d) Ireland

The correct answer is a) Scotland

3. This nation is also referred as "The Land of Flying Fish" ?

a) Barbados
b) Guyana
c) Finland
d) Jamaica

The correct answer is a) Barbados

4. Which region is often called " The Land of 5 Rivers " ?

a) Punjab (India and Pakistan)
b) France
c) Thailand
d) Bangladesh

The correct answer is a) Punjab (India and Pakistan)

5. Which country is also called "The Land of The Dikes" ?

a) Netherland
b) Denmark
c) Germany
d) Belgium

The correct answer is a) Netherland

6. This Asian country is also sumtimes called as "The Land of The White Elephants" ?

a) Laos
b) Thailand
c) Combodia
d) Myanmar

The correct answer is b) Thailand

7. This country is also called " Little Venice" ?

a) Vanuatu
b) Vietnam
c) Venezuela
d) Vatican city

The correct answer is c) Venezuela

8. Which country is also referred as " The Land of the Golden Fleece " ?

a) Denmark
b) Argentina
c) USA
d) Australia

The correct answer is d) Australia
9. Which city is referred as " The Gateway of India " ?

a) New Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Calcutta
d) Madras

The correct answer is b) Mumbai

GK 66

1. Who provided proof to suggest that the earth was spherical?

a) David Encaston
b) Francis Drake
c) Ferdinand Magellan
d) Christopher Columbus

The correct answer is c) Ferdinand Magellan

2. What was the speed of the initial land speed record?

a) 122.43 kilometres per hour
b) 63.15 kilometres per hour
c) 79.19 kilometres per hour
d) 92.65 kilometres per hour

The correct answer is b) 63.15 kilometres per hour

3. Edmund Hillary was a professional at which irregular occupation?

a) Bell Ringer
b) Horseshoe Maker
c) Horse Dentist
d) Apiarist

The correct answer is d) Apiarist

4. From which country was Roald Amundsen, the person who completed the maiden voyage to the South Pole?

a) Germany
b) England
c) Norway
d) India

The correct answer is c) Norway

5. Who was the first person to swim across the English Channel?

a) Brenton Hope
b) Philip Rush
c) Gwyneth Davies
d) Matthew Webb

The correct answer is d) Matthew Webb

6. Niagara Falls once had the title of being the 'Suicide Capital of the World.' Is this true?

a) Yes
b) No

The correct answer is a) Yes
7. Who was the first private space tourist?

a) Larry Swanson
b) Toyohiro Akiyama
c) Mark Shuttleworth
d) Dennis Tito

The correct answer is d) Dennis Tito

8. What did Alfred Nobel hope for when he worked on explosives?

a) That he would become a famous author
b) That he would create a new element
c) That the explosive would stop war and promote peace
d) That the explosions would be the biggest in history

The correct answer is c) That the explosive would stop war and promote peace
9. Which of the following areas is one in which a Nobel Prize is not awarded?

a) Peace
b) Physics
c) Physiology
d) Biology

The correct answer is d) Biology

GK 65

1. Firstly, to which of these language groups does English belong?

a) Baltic
b) Romance
c) Germanic
d) Slavonic

The correct answer is c) Germanic

2. In the sentence 'I took my big brown cat to the vet yesterday', which of the following does not appear?

a) Adjective
b) Preposition
c) Adverb
d) Conjunction

The correct answer is d) Conjunction

3. True or false: English has no inflections for grammatical case.

a) True
b) False

The correct answer is b) False

4. What is defined as 'the study of sentence structure'?

a) Morphology
b) Semantics
c) Phonology
d) Syntax

The correct answer is d) Syntax
5. Three of these languages do not have definite articles. Which one does have a structure that serves the purpose of a definite article?

a) Russian
b) Finnish
c) Latin
d) Swedish

The correct answer is d) Swedish
6. In dialectology, what is the line on a map called which divides areas with different forms of a word?

a) Isobar
b) Isogloss--
c) Isotherm
d) Isomer

The correct answer is b) Isogloss

7. The sounds of a language change over time. English spelling does not always reflect this change: how was the 'gh' in 'night' originally pronounced?

a) Like German 'ch' in 'ich', but voiced
b) Like English 'ch' in 'church'
c) Like English 'y' in 'yellow'
d) Like German 'ch' in 'ich'

The correct answer is d) Like German 'ch' in 'ich'

8. Which of these words describes the changing of the form of a verb in order to reflect person, number, tense and mood?

a) Declension
b) Inversion
c) Subordination
d) Conjugation

The correct answer is d) Conjugation

9. The combination of sounds 'ms-' is not acceptable as the beginning of a word or syllable in English. In which of these languages is it acceptable?

a) Dutch
b) French
c) Russian
d) Finnish

The correct answer is c) Russian
10. And finally... Old Norse is almost the same as which modern Scandinavian language?

a) Danish
b) Norwegian
c) Icelandic
d) Swedish

The correct answer is c) Icelandic

GK 64

1. Of what metal is the Victoria Cross made?

a) 18 carat gold
b) Cupro-nickel
c) Sterling silver
d) Bronze

The correct answer is d) Bronze

2. What is the inscription on the Victoria Cross?

a) For Gallantry
b) For Valour
c) For Bravery in the Field
d) For Conspicuous Gallantry

The correct answer is b) For Valour

3. Up to 2010, how many times had a bar to the Victoria Cross been awarded (for a second award)?

a) 2
b) 0
c) 3
d) 1

The correct answer is c) 3

4. Which gallantry medal was inaugurated by Napoleon Bonaparte in 1802?

a) The Croix de Guerre
b) The Croix de Merite
c) The Medaille Militaire
d) The Legion d'Honneur

The correct answer is d) The Legion d'Honneur

5. When was the Iron Cross instituted?

a) 1870
b) 1813
c) 1914
d) 1939

The correct answer is b) 1813

6. What was the earliest American decoration for conspicuous military service?

a) The Medal of Honor
b) The Navy Cross
c) The Silver Star
d) The Purple Heart

The correct answer is d) The Purple Heart

7. During which war was the US Medal of Honor instituted?

a) The Revolutionary War
b) The Civil War
c) The Spanish American War
d) The First World War

The correct answer is b) The Civil War

8. In the British Armed Forces what symbol on the medal ribbon denotes a mention in despatches?

a) Star
b) Rosette
c) Crossed Swords
d) Oak leaf

The correct answer is d) Oak leaf

9. What pre-Soviet Russian order was the only one to be awarded exclusively for gallantry?

a) St George
b) St Catherine
c) St Andrew
d) St Vladimir

The correct answer is a) St George

10. The Order of the Golden Kite was awarded to members of which country's armed forces?

a) India
b) China
c) Japan
d) Thailand

The correct answer is c) Japan

GK 63

1. The Indian Army has used tanks originally designed and built in many countries. Which of these countries has India never bought tanks or a license for production?

a) Germany
b) USSR/Russia
c) UK
d) France

The correct answer is a) Germany

2. What is the nickname of the Vickers MBT operated by the Indian Armor in the 1970s and 1980s?

a) Ajeya
b) Vijayanta
c) Bheesma
d) Sharath

The correct answer is b) Vijayanta
3. What is the name of the indigenously developed third generation anti-tank missile to be inducted into the Indian Army in the nest couple of years?

a) Nag
b) Arrow
c) Sagarika
d) Javelin

The correct answer is a) Nag

4. The military draft has been imposed 4 times in Independent India.

a) True
b) False

The correct answer is b) False

5. This regiment, raised in 1949, was the first all class regiment, made by combining the senior most battalions of four senior most infantry regiments. It is the most elite regiment of the Indian Army. Which regiment am I referring to?

a) Jammu Kashmir Light Infantry
b) Punjab Regiment
c) Mechanized Regiment
d) Brigade of the Guards

The correct answer is d) Brigade of the Guards
6. Which one is name after a region?

a) Jat Regiment
b) Punjab regiment
c) Maratha Light Infantry
d) Mahar Regiment

The correct answer is b) Punjab regiment
7. Which regiment has the honour of having the most number of Param Vir Chakra (India's highest medal for gallantry) awardees

a) Brigade of the Guards
b) Grenadiers Regiment
c) Punjab Regiment
d) Parachute Regiment

The correct answer is b) Grenadiers Regiment

8. This weapons system was under a cloud of controversy for the greater part of the 1990s costing Rajiv Gandhi the Prime Ministership, on allegations of corruption in the acqisition of these systems. However, the Kargil War in 1999 showed that these weapons systems were actually well worth the trouble.

a) T-90 Tanks
b) Dhruv helicopters
c) LCA fighters
d) Bofors guns

The correct answer is d) Bofors guns

9. Which is the oldest armoured regiment in the Indian Army?

a) 1 Horse
b) 2 Lancers
c) 1st Armoured Regiment
d) President's Bodyguards

The correct answer is d) President's Bodyguards

10. Who was appointed the Chief of Army Staff of the Indian Army in June 2005?

a) Bhupendra Singh Thakur
b) Mohinder Puri
c) Padam Pal Singh Bhandari
d) Joginder Jaswant Singh

The correct answer is d) Joginder Jaswant Singh

GK 62

1. What was the German invasion of the Soviet Union during World War Two named?

a) Valkyrie
b) Blitzkrieg
c) Barbarossa
d) Rasputin

The correct answer is c) Barbarossa

2. The US air raids on Libya in April 1986 were given what name?

a) Operation Desert Wind
b) Operation Red River
c) Operation Eagle Fury
d) Operation Eldorado Canyon

The correct answer is d) Operation Eldorado Canyon

3. When Germany unleashed its V-1 and V-2 terror weapons on Britain in World War Two the RAF responded with an operation to find and destroy the German V weapon bases. What was this operation named?

a) Operation Slingshot
b) Operation Longbow
c) Operation Crossbow
d) Operation Catapult

The correct answer is c) Operation Crossbow

4. Operation Yonatan saw Israeli forces swing into action on the 3rd July 1976 in an attempt to rescue airline passengers being held where?

a) Aden
b) Tripoli
c) Beirut
d) Entebbe

The correct answer is d) Entebbe

5. The US invasion of Grenada went by which name?

a) Operation Stingray
b) Operation Caribbean Cruise
c) Operation Urgent Fury
d) Operation Overkill

The correct answer is c) Operation Urgent Fury

6. The destruction of German trains in France and Germany during World War 2 was given what fairly obvious name?

a) Operation Thomas the Tank
b) Operation Take the Bus
c) Operation Locomotion
d) Operation Chattanooga Choo Choo

The correct answer is d) Operation Chattanooga Choo Choo

7. Operation Eagle Claw was the name given to which mission?

a) Rescuing US embassy staff held hostage in Iran
b) The strategic bombing of North Vietnam
c) The capture of Kuwait City
d) The invasion of Corsica

The correct answer is a) Rescuing US embassy staff held hostage in Iran

8. The planned German invasion of Britain during World War Two was given what code name?

a) Thor
b) Northern Lights
c) Sealion
d) Waterloo

The correct answer is c) Sealion

9. The United States invasion of Panama was given what name?

a) Operation El Dorado
b) Operation Pineapple Head
c) Operation Just Cause
d) Operation Transworld

The correct answer is c) Operation Just Cause

10. The Allied invasion of Northern Europe beginning with the Normandy landings became known as Operation ____?

a) Rolling Thunder
b) Stallion
c) Sabre
d) Overlord

The correct answer is d) Overlord

GK 61

1. What type of massage do you need, if you have had lymph glands removed after breast cancer surgery?

a) Pressure point therapy on arms
b) Lymphatic Drainage
c) Deep tissue therapy on arms
d) Foot reflexology

The correct answer is b) Lymphatic Drainage

2. A person has been told by the doctor that his blood sugar levels are heading towards borderline diabetes. What is the best nutritional plan that he should adopt to keep his blood sugar levels low?

a) All of these
b) Eat more fruits and vegetables
c) Cut out sugar and saturated fats
d) Eat more complex carbohydrate foods

The correct answer is a) All of these

3. Which out of the following choices is the best way to lose weight and keep it off?

a) All are equal in efficiency
b) Walk for 15 minutes twice a day
c) Walk 10 minutes three times a day
d) Walk 30 minutes a day in one session

The correct answer is a) All are equal in efficiency

4. A person has been gardening all day and he has complained of lower back soreness with pain radiating down one of his legs. What is most probably causing the pain?

a) Strained Trapezius muscle
b) Hairline fracture to a thoracic vertebra
c) Sciatica due to a strained piriformis muscle
d) Soft tissue damage to a quadriceps muscle

The correct answer is c) Sciatica due to a strained piriformis muscle

5. Health experts claim that people need six to eight glasses of water a day. If you eat fruits and vegetables, does this contribute to your daily water intake?

a) Yes
b) No

The correct answer is a) Yes

6. The best way to condition the body for optimal health and fitness, is to exercise regularly and increase the workload gradually. What shouldn't you do if you are following a weight training exercise program?

a) Have a one minute break between sets
b) Increase the sets depending on the type of program you are using
c) Increase the reps per set
d) Increase the load and the repetitions at the same time

The correct answer is d) Increase the load and the repetitions at the same time

7. A person who is obese, has uncontolled high blood pressure, uncontrolled diabetes and the flu, wants to lose weight and get fit. What should he do?

a) Swim a few laps of the pool slowly
b) Wait till the flu has gone and start his exercise program
c) Consult a physician first
d) Start exercising immediately

The correct answer is c) Consult a physician first

8. After performing in a 10 hour marathon consisting of cycling, swimming and running, an athlete often loses weight, his/her body becomes cold and he/she often starts cramping in the legs and arms. What is the best type of massage you would use straight after a 10 hour race?

a) Swedish relaxing massage
b) Post Performance Sports Massage
c) Deep Tissue therapy
d) Reflexology to the hands and feet

The correct answer is b) Post Performance Sports Massage

9. Golfer's elbow is a painful condition that affects the inner elbow and tennis elbow is said to be a problem with the outer part of the elbow. What body structure is involved if a person has Tennis elbow?

a) Olecranon process
b) Ligaments
c) Biccipital groove
d) Tendons

The correct answer is d) Tendons

10. Many females are not happy with their waistlines especially after giving birth. Stomach exercises will not only help firm the abdominal muscles but assist in burning up some of the excess fat. Which one of the following choices can actually increase the size of the waistline, compared to the other choices?

a) Swimming laps in the pool three times a week
b) Using gym equipment and increasing weights gradually
c) Riding a bike three times a week
d) Doing three sets of sit-ups with 15 reps each set three times a week

The correct answer is b) Using gym equipment and increasing weights gradually