GK 79

1. Before becoming US President in 1981, he was head of a labor union.    

a) Hoover
b) Truman
c) Reagan
d) Johnson

The correct answer is c) Reagan

2. What is the full name of the 33rd US President?

a) Harry S. Truman
b) Harry Shine Truman
c) Harry Simon Truman
d) Harry Simpson Truman

The correct answer is a) Harry S. Truman

3. Gangster Al Capone, popular as "Scarface", was known by what other nickname?    

a) Loverboy
b) The senator
c) Snorky
d) The fox

The correct answer is c) Snorky

4. This amendment of the United States Constitution, which is part of the Bill of Rights, guards against unreasonable searches and seizures.    

a) Third Amendment
b) Fourth Amendment
c) Fifth Amendment
d) Sixth Amendment

The correct answer is b) Fourth Amendment

5. This Hungarian-Austrian physician demonstrated that puerperal fever (also known as "childbed fever") was contagious and that its incidence could be considerably reduced by enforcing appropriate hand washing behavior.    

a) Dr. J. Lister
b) Dr. I. Semmelweis
c) Dr. L. Pastuer
d) Dr. J. Kirchner

The correct answer is b) Dr. I. Semmelweis

6. It is generally accepted that the name of these islands of volcanic origin derives from a Latin term, meaning Island of the Dogs.    

a) The Galapagos Islands
b) The Solentiname Islands
c) Corn Islands
d) The Canary Islands

The correct answer is d) The Canary Islands

7. One of the two species, comprising the chimpanzee genus, is the Common Chimpanzee. What is the name of the other species?

a) Kalapuor chimpanzee
b) Highland chimpanzee
c) Lowland chimpanzee
d) Bonobo chimpanzee

The correct answer is d) Bonobo chimpanzee

8. This Hebrew word refers to a non-human, speechless, animated being from Jewish folklore.    

a) Robot
b) Lemech
c) Emes
d) Golem

The correct answer is d) Golem

9. This American actress and stand-up comedian, host of a syndicated talk show, wrote an autobiography, entitled "My Point...And I Do Have One".    

a) Ellen DeGeneres
b) Wanda Sykes
c) Phyillis Diller
d) Joan Rovers

The correct answer is a) Ellen DeGeneres
10. In trigonometry this law, which generalizes the Pythagorean theorem, is a statement about a general triangle, which relates the lengths of its sides to the cosine of a known angle.    

a) The Law of Cosines
b) The Rule of Three
c) The Law of Adjacent Hypotenuses
d) The Archimedean Principle

The correct answer is a) The Law of Cosines

GK 78

1. Their necks and backs of are covered in flexible armor. They are dark brown except for their heads, tails and the lower edges of their shells, which are nearly white. They can reach 130 pounds, but most weigh between 40 and 70 pounds.    

a) Lynx
b) Ocelot
c) Lemur
d) Giant Armadillo

The correct answer is d) Giant Armadillo

2. They are fast animals. They are the size of a rabbit and live underground. They eat grasses, roots, seeds and leafy plants. They have short legs and sharp claws to help them dig their homes.    

a) Swift Fox
b) Prairie Dog
c) Eastern Timber Wolf
d) Lemur    

The correct answer is b) Prairie Dog

3. Their coat varies in color from shades of buff or brown fur with spotted or lined markings in dark brown or black. They are cats, slightly smaller than their cousin, the lynx. They live an average of 12 to 13 years. They can be found from southern Canada to northern Mexico.    

a) Cougar
b) Bobcat
c) Puma
d) Panther    

The correct answer is b) Bobcat

4. Their largest population is found in Florida. They use their two small front flippers to crawl along ocean or river bottoms. They are big, 1500 to 1800 pounds and are thought to live 50 to 60 years in the wild.    

a) Humpback Whale
b) Manatee
c) Walrus
d) Spinner Dolphin    

The correct answer is b) Manatee

5. They are the size of medium domestic dogs and their latin name is Lycaon pictus. They have large, rounded ears and dark brown circles around their eyes. They can live for up to 10 years.    

a) Prairie Dog
b) African Wild Dog
c) Mexican Wolf
d) Swift Fox    

The correct answer is b) African Wild Dog

5. They have the thickest fur in the animal world. They do not have a layer of blubber to help keep it warm. They are the largest member of the weasel family.    

a) Manatee
b) Sea Otter
c) Ocelot
d) Hawaiian Monk Seal    

The correct answer is b) Sea Otter
7. They are the largest member of the dolphin family. Their black bodies are marked with white patches on the underside and near the eyes.    

a) Killer Whale
b) Spinner Dolphin
c) Beluga Whale
d) Sperm Whale    

The correct answer is a) Killer Whale

8. Their faces are pinkish to black, and their bodies are covered with long black hair. They are quadrupedal, which means that they walk on all four limbs, although they can also walk upright for short distances.

a) Gorilla
b) Gibbon
c) Orangutan
d) Chimpanzee

The correct answer is d) Chimpanzee

GK 77

1. He said: "If you want to make a lot of money, invent something that will enable Europeans to cut each other's throats."    

a) Leonardo Da Vinci
b) Thomas Alva Edison
c) Hiram Maxim
d) James Puckle

The correct answer is c) Hiram Maxim

2. In World War I, the machine gun combined with this invention was responsible for most of the battle casualties.    

a) Samuel Colt's invention
b) Alfred Nobel's invention
c) James Puckle's invention
d) James Glidden's invention

The correct answer is d) James Glidden's invention

3. Where was the assault rifle invented?    

a) in Italy
b) in Russia
c) in Germany
d) in Mexico

The correct answer is a) in Italy

4. Which of the following was invented by Hiram Maxim?    

a) The silencer
b) The automatic pistol
c) The sniper rifle
d) The assault rifle

The correct answer is a) The silencer
5. He was responsible for the invention of the caterpillar tractor, which was the basis of the tank.    

a) John Deere
b) Samuel Browning
c) James Puckle
d) James B. Hill

The correct answer is d) James B. Hill

6. The operational jet fighter was invented during this war.

a) World War I
b) World War II
c) The Spanish Revolution
d) The Korean War

The correct answer is b) World War II
7. When was the first automatic revolver produced?    

a) Between 1889 and 1891
b) Between 1961 and 1963
c) Between 1923 and 1924
d) Between 1901 and 1903

The correct answer is d) Between 1901 and 1903

8. In what year was the first mass produced multishot pistol patented?

a) 1879
b) 1862
c) 1912
d) 1835

The correct answer is d) 1835

9. When was a telescopic sight first put on a rifle?

a) 1931
b) 1789
c) 1939
d) 1880

The correct answer is d) 1880

10. Why is the Borchardt pistol of 1893 considered an important invention?    

a) It was the first pistol to have a separate ammo magazine.
b) It was the first pistol to have an effective range of over 60 yards.
c) It was the first pistol that was not made of metal.
d) It was the first pistol approved for use by the Swiss Guard to help guard the Pope.

The correct answer is a) It was the first pistol to have a separate ammo magazine.

GK 76

1. Who founded the Indian National Congress (INC) party?

a) None of these
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) W C Bannerjee

The correct answer is a) None of these

2. The Vajpayee government was defeated in a historic vote on the floor of the Lok Sabha in 1998 by a margin of just one vote! Who was the one MP who violated his party whip and voted against the government thus probably being the one member who caused the fall of the government?

a) Mayawati
b) Saifuddin Soz
c) Giridhar Gomango
d) Subramaniam Swamy

The correct answer is b) Saifuddin Soz
3. The world's first democratically elected Communist Government was formed in which Indian state?

a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) West Bengal
d) Uttar Pradesh

The correct answer is b) Kerala

4. Who was the president of India who had actually threatened to dismiss the prime minister and had (for some time) created a crisis?

a) Dr.Radhakrishnan
b) K R Narayanan
c) VV Giri
d) Zail Singh

The correct answer is d) Zail Singh

5. If the two chambers of the Indian Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) meet for a joint session, who is authorised under the constitution to chair this joint session?

a) Vice-President
b) Chief Justice of India
c) President
d) Speaker

The correct answer is d) Speaker

6. If the President of India has to resign, to whom should he submit his resignation letter?

a) Chief Justice of India
b) Speaker
c) Prime Minister
d) Vice-President--

The correct answer is d) Vice-President

7. The preamble of the Indian Constitution ‘We the people _____’, contains some key terms. This preamble has been amended later. Which of the following words in the preamble was not present when the Constitution first came into effect?

a) Secular
b) Democratic
c) Sovereign
d) Republic

The correct answer is a) Secular

8. Prevention of cow slaughter is a fundamental duty of citizens as prescribed by the Constitution of India.

a) True
b) False

The correct answer is b) False

9. What does the Tenth schedule of the Indian Constitution contain?

a) The list of states and union territories
b) The laws beyond the jurisdiction of the courts
c) The list of recognized languages
d) The Anti-defection act

The correct answer is d) The Anti-defection act

10. Which of the following prime ministers of India did NOT die in office?

a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Rajiv Gandhi
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
d) Indira Gandhi

The correct answer is b) Rajiv Gandhi

GK 75

1. These are the most elite Special Operation Forces of the US navy. They have fought in major conflicts, including Operation 'Enduring Freedom' - the military response to the terrorist attacks on September 11, 2001.    

a) SEAL
b) GIGN
c) SAS
d) SWAT

The correct answer is a) SEAL

2. This Special Operation Force of the US Army is officially referred to as the 'Combat Application Group'. It was featured in Ridley Scot’s movie, ‘Black Hawk Down’.    

a) SEAL
b) Delta Force
c) SWAT
d) Black Berets

The correct answer is b) Delta Force

3. This specialized paramilitary police unit in the USA, created in the city of Delano, California, in the 1960s, is often called upon for dangerous operations.    

a) SBS
b) SWAT
c) GEK
d) GIGN

The correct answer is b) SWAT

4. This elite combat frogman force, formerly called Decima Flottiglia MAS, is part of the Italian special forces.

a) COMSUBIN
b) GVP/ESR
c) CIAES
d) Jagdkommando

The correct answer is a) COMSUBIN

5. This unit, formed in 1941, is part of the UK special forces. Its badge depicts a sword with an inscription: ‘Who dares wins’.

a) DGSE
b) SAS
c) SEK
d) GEK

The correct answer is b) SAS

6. The Foreign Legion, founded in 1831, is an elite rapid deployment force which consists mainly of foreign volunteers. It is a military formation within the army of which country?

a) France
b) Austria
c) Germany
d) Australia

The correct answer is a) France

7. The fictional character John Rambo, portrayed on the big screen by actor Sylvester Stallone, belongs to what US special forces?    

a) SEAL
b) Red Berets
c) Green Berets
d) Delta Force

The correct answer is c) Green Berets

8. This Australian special force deals with reconnaissance and counter-terrorism. It played a significant role in providing security during the Sydney Olympic Games in 2000.    

a) SASR
b) SAU
c) KS
d) DGSE

The correct answer is a) SASR

9. GEK Cobra, founded in 1972 to protect Jewish immigrants from Palestinian terrorists, is the counter-terrorist unit of this country.    

a) Austria
b) Belgium
c) France
d) Israel

The correct answer is a) Austria
10. The counter-terrorism unit, GSG-9, established on April 17, 1973 and considered to be among the best of such units in the world, is part of the federal police of which country?    

a) Germany
b) United Kingdom
c) Spain
d) Italy

The correct answer is a) Germany

GK 74

1. What is Adjusted Gross Income?

a) your after-tax income
b) your taxable income after deductions
c) your taxable income before deductions

The correct answer is c) your taxable income before deductions

2. Which of the following does not count as an itemized deduction on your income tax?

a) the cost of utilities like water and gas
b) theft losses
c) gambling losses

The correct answer is a) the cost of utilities like water and gas

3. Which of the following isn't a good reason to file a tax amendment?

a) you made a mathematical error
b) you put down the wrong filing status
c) you forgot to count someone as a dependent

The correct answer is a) you made a mathematical error

4. Which form tells your employer all they need to know about your tax-related allowance information?

a) W-2
b) W-4
c) W-10

The correct answer is b) W-4

5. It was unconstitutional for the U.S. government to levy an income tax before the passage of which amendment?

a) 14th Amendment
b) 16th Amendment
c) 18th Amendment

The correct answer is b) 16th Amendment

6. The proposed FairTax would change the U.S. tax system and instead:

a) institute a national sales tax
b) institute a single income tax rate for all taxpayers
c) would only tax the rich

The correct answer is a) institute a national sales tax

7. Which of the following may increase your chances of getting audited?

a) a clean and clearly filled out tax return
b) a mathematical mistake on your tax return
c) sending explanatory notes and receipts before the IRS asks for them

The correct answer is b) a mathematical mistake on your tax return

8. If you sell your old Chevrolet for more than you paid, the profit is subject to:

a) no taxation
b) capital gains tax
c) seller's tax

The correct answer is b) capital gains tax

9. Which of the following is not a way to lower the amount you pay in capital gains taxes?

a) deducting capital losses from your capital gains
b) taking advantage of short-term rather than long-term investments
c) taking advantage of long-term rather than short-term investments

The correct answer is b) taking advantage of short-term rather than long-term investments

GK 73

1. What are comets made of?

a) ice and dust
b) rock
c) hydrogen
d) metal

The correct answer is a) ice and dust

2. What are asteroids closely similar to?

a) comets
b) meteorites
c) planets
d) meteors

The correct answer is b) meteorites

3. What are meteors called that explode with a thunder sound?
   
a) meteoroid
b) shooting star
c) asteroids
d) bolides

The correct answer is d) bolides

4. What happens when a comet goes toward the sun?
   
a) developes a tail
b) brightens
c) melts
d) none of the above

The correct answer is a) developes a tail

5. What type of galaxy is the Milky Way?

a) barred spiral
b) elliptical
c) spiral
d) irregular

The correct answer is c) spiral

6. How many basic types of galaxies are there?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

The correct answer is b) 3

7. What do scientists think are in the middle of the Milky Way?

a) the sun
b) a black hole
c) an asteroid belt
d) a star

The correct answer is b) a black hole

8. What kind of stars are in the Milky Way?
   
a) blue stars
b) red stars
c) white stars
d) both blue and red stars

The correct answer is d) both blue and red stars
9. What do you need for an eclipse to occur?

a) the sun
b) the moon and the sun
c) Earth, the moon, and the sun
d) Earth

The correct answer is c) Earth, the moon, and the sun

10. What kind of eclipse occurs when the sun, moon, and Earth doesn't line up completely?
   
a) total
b) partial
c) annular
d) solar

The correct answer is b) partial

GK 72

1. When a lunar eclipse occurs, what phase should the moon be in?

a) wanning
b) waxing
c) half moon
d) full moon

The correct answer is d) full moon

2. How long does a lunar eclipse last up to?

a) 2 hours
b) 4 hours
c) 8 hours
d) 10 hours

The correct answer is b) 4 hours

3. What are stars mainly made of?

a) balls of gas
b) rock
c) ice
d) light

The correct answer is a) balls of gas

4. What is the term astronomers use to measure the brightness of star?
   
a) light year
b) magnitude
c) scale
d) watts

The correct answer is b) magnitude

5. What is the cloud of material stars are made of called?

a) galaxies
b) nebulae
c) comets
d) meteors

The correct answer is b) nebulae

6. What is the name of the remains of the sun after its nuclear reactions stops?

a) neutron star
b) pulsars
c) black holes
d) white dwarf stars

The correct answer is d) white dwarf stars

7. How many moons does Mercury have?
   
a) none
b) 1
c) 3
d) 6

The correct answer is a) none

8. What is the storm on Jupiter called?
   
a) The Great Red Spot
b) The Great Dark Spot
c) Scooter
d) The Small Red Spot

The correct answer is a) The Great Red Spot

9. Which planet has a moon that is nearly that is half the size of itself?

a) Jupiter
b) Neptune
c) Pluto
d) Venus

The correct answer is c) Pluto
10. Which planet is called the Sister Planet?

a) Mercury
b) Venus
c) Mars
d) Neptune

The correct answer is b) Venus

GK 71

1. How many rings does Uranus have?

a) 8
b) 20
c) 11
d) 5

The correct answer is c) 11

2. Which of Mars's moons is the smallest in the solar system?

a) Phobos
b) Callisto
c) Umbriel
d) Demios

The correct answer is d) Demios
3. What is Earth mostly made of?

a) land
b) mountain ranges
c) water
d) plains

The correct answer is c) water

4. Which planet has the most moons?
   
a) Jupiter
b) Saturn
c) Uranus
d) Neptune

The correct answer is b) Saturn

5. Which storm disappeared on Neptune?
   
a) Dark Spot 2
b) The Great Dark Spot
c) The Great Red Spot
d) Scooter

The correct answer is b) The Great Dark Spot

6. What did Galileo's father want him to become?
   
a) doctor
b) scientist
c) astronomer
d) teacher

The correct answer is a) doctor

7. When Galileo was released from the Inquisition, what did they put him under?
   
a) burned him
b) put him in jail
c) execution
d) house arrest

The correct answer is d) house arrest

8. What instrument did Galileo improve?
   
a) telescope
b) magnifying glass
c) microscope
d) glasses

The correct answer is a) telescope

9. When Galileo left Pisa, where did he go to teach?

a) University of Florence
b) University of Rome
c) University of Italy
d) University of Padua

The correct answer is d) University of Padua

GK 70

1. The greatest danger facing most endangered species is...

a) Hunting
b) Habitat loss
c) Disease
d) Capture for the pet trade

The correct answer is b) Habitat loss

2. Which of the following is not listed as an endangered species under the U.S. Endangered Species Act?

a) Cheetah
b) Bald eagle
c) Blue whale
d) Hawaiian monk seal

The correct answer is b) Bald eagle
3. The Bronx Zoo once had a picture frame covered by cloth. It was labelled 'The most dangerous species in the world'. If you removed the cover, you saw...

a) A great white shark
b) A mirror
c) A virus
d) A mountain lion

The correct answer is b) A mirror

4. Which of the following substances is not biodegradable?

a) Paper
b) Food refuse
c) Styrofoam
d) Sawdust

The correct answer is c) Styrofoam

5. What environmental problem is the result of chemical reactions in the atmosphere that involve sulfur?

a) Deforestation
b) Acid rain
c) Holes in the ozone layer
d) Smog

The correct answer is b) Acid rain

6. What chemicals have been banned in most of the world because of their role in destroying the ozone layer?

a) DDT
b) Metal oxides
c) Peroxides
d) Chlorofluorocarbons

The correct answer is d) Chlorofluorocarbons

7. Who wrote 'Silent Spring', the first book documenting many of the problems caused by pesticides?

a) Aldo Leopold
b) Henry David Thoreau
c) Rachel Carson
d) Jaques Cousteau

The correct answer is c) Rachel Carson

8. Which of the following is not a renewable resource?

a) Timber
b) Wild mushrooms
c) Fish
d) Gold

The correct answer is d) Gold
9. Which of the following practices produces the most organic water pollution?

a) Intensive livestock farming
b) Paper mills
c) Recreational boating
d) Humans bathing in the water

The correct answer is a) Intensive livestock farming

10. 'Ecology' comes from two Greek words meaning...

a) Natural life
b) Study of the world
c) Study of the house
d) Nature study

The correct answer is c) Study of the house

GK 69

1. Which of the following concepts are referred by the field of Finance?

a. Time
b. Money
c. Risk
d. Time, Money and Risk and how they are interrelated

The correct answer is d. Time, Money and Risk and how they are interrelated
   
2. Which of the following statements does the term Finance incorporates?

a. The study of money and other assets
b. The management and control of those assets
c. The science of managing money
d. All of them

The correct answer is d. All of them
   
3.  As a verb, "to finance" is to provide funds for business or for an individual's large purchases (car, home, etc.).

a. True
b. False

The correct answer is a. True

4. Which of the following professions deals with Finance?

a. Doctors
b. Engineers
c. Sports
d. Chartered Accountants
   
The correct answer is d. Chartered Accountants

5. Capital, in the financial sense, is the money which gives the business the power to buy goods to be used in the production of other goods or the offering of a service.

a. True
b. False

The correct answer is a. True
   
6. Which term is used for "Money which is used to purchase assets that will remain permanently in the business and help it to make a profit"?

a. Fixed Capital
b. Working Capital
c. Capital Budget
d. Cash Budget

The correct answer is a. Fixed Capital
   
7. Credit gives the customer the opportunity to buy goods and services, and pay for them at a later date.

a. True
b. False

The correct answer is a. True   
8.  The method of Depreciation for Intangible Assets is known as?

a. Appreciation
b. Amortization
c. Straight Line
d. Depreciation
   
The correct answer is b. Amortization
9.  How inflation hits a country economy?

a. when demand for a commodity is more than supply for the commodity
b. when supply more than demand
c. when change in the price of the commodity

The correct answer is a. when demand for a commodity is more than supply for the commodity
   
10. Who was the father of accounting ?

a. F.W.Taylor
b. Luca Pacioli
c. John Keynes
d. Adam Smith

The correct answer is b. Luca Pacioli

GK 68

1. A stock market is also called

a. free market
b. open market
c. equity market
d. sports market
   
The correct answer is c. equity market

2. What is done in the stock market?

a. trading
b. singing
c. dancing
d. rocking

The correct answer is a. trading
   
3. The estimated price of the stock market is at

a. 50 trillion dollars
b. 51 trillion dollars
c. 52 trillion dollars
d. 53 trillion dollars

The correct answer is b. 51 trillion dollars
   
4. The value of the derivative market is stated in:

a. standard values
b. expert values
c. nominal values
d. notional values
The correct answer is d. notional values

5. A fixed income security is also called:

a. decided value
b. basic value
c. actual value
d. fixed value

The correct answer is c. actual value   

6. Actual trades are based on this paradign

a. free economy
b. auction market
c. laissez faire
d. closed market

The correct answer is b. auction market
   
7. The New York Stock Exchange is called:

a. situational change
b. nominal change
c. physical change
d. chemical change

The correct answer is c. physical change
   
8. This record is sent back to the brokerage firm

a. tape
b. song
c. disc
d. file

The correct answer is a. tape
   
9. Computers performs this function :

a. design trading
b. system trading
c. file trading
d. program trading

The correct answer is d. program trading
   
10. The NYSE is also called a listed exchange

a. True
b. False

The correct answer is a. True

GK 67

1. Which nation is referred to as " Giant of Africa " ?

a) Nigeria
b) South Africa
c) Kenya
d) Tanzania

The correct answer is a) Nigeria

2. Which country is called "The Land O'Cakes" ?

a) Scotland
b) Belgium
c) Wales
d) Ireland

The correct answer is a) Scotland

3. This nation is also referred as "The Land of Flying Fish" ?

a) Barbados
b) Guyana
c) Finland
d) Jamaica

The correct answer is a) Barbados

4. Which region is often called " The Land of 5 Rivers " ?

a) Punjab (India and Pakistan)
b) France
c) Thailand
d) Bangladesh

The correct answer is a) Punjab (India and Pakistan)

5. Which country is also called "The Land of The Dikes" ?

a) Netherland
b) Denmark
c) Germany
d) Belgium

The correct answer is a) Netherland

6. This Asian country is also sumtimes called as "The Land of The White Elephants" ?

a) Laos
b) Thailand
c) Combodia
d) Myanmar

The correct answer is b) Thailand

7. This country is also called " Little Venice" ?

a) Vanuatu
b) Vietnam
c) Venezuela
d) Vatican city

The correct answer is c) Venezuela

8. Which country is also referred as " The Land of the Golden Fleece " ?

a) Denmark
b) Argentina
c) USA
d) Australia

The correct answer is d) Australia
9. Which city is referred as " The Gateway of India " ?

a) New Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Calcutta
d) Madras

The correct answer is b) Mumbai

GK 66

1. Who provided proof to suggest that the earth was spherical?

a) David Encaston
b) Francis Drake
c) Ferdinand Magellan
d) Christopher Columbus

The correct answer is c) Ferdinand Magellan

2. What was the speed of the initial land speed record?

a) 122.43 kilometres per hour
b) 63.15 kilometres per hour
c) 79.19 kilometres per hour
d) 92.65 kilometres per hour

The correct answer is b) 63.15 kilometres per hour

3. Edmund Hillary was a professional at which irregular occupation?

a) Bell Ringer
b) Horseshoe Maker
c) Horse Dentist
d) Apiarist

The correct answer is d) Apiarist

4. From which country was Roald Amundsen, the person who completed the maiden voyage to the South Pole?

a) Germany
b) England
c) Norway
d) India

The correct answer is c) Norway

5. Who was the first person to swim across the English Channel?

a) Brenton Hope
b) Philip Rush
c) Gwyneth Davies
d) Matthew Webb

The correct answer is d) Matthew Webb

6. Niagara Falls once had the title of being the 'Suicide Capital of the World.' Is this true?

a) Yes
b) No

The correct answer is a) Yes
7. Who was the first private space tourist?

a) Larry Swanson
b) Toyohiro Akiyama
c) Mark Shuttleworth
d) Dennis Tito

The correct answer is d) Dennis Tito

8. What did Alfred Nobel hope for when he worked on explosives?

a) That he would become a famous author
b) That he would create a new element
c) That the explosive would stop war and promote peace
d) That the explosions would be the biggest in history

The correct answer is c) That the explosive would stop war and promote peace
9. Which of the following areas is one in which a Nobel Prize is not awarded?

a) Peace
b) Physics
c) Physiology
d) Biology

The correct answer is d) Biology

GK 65

1. Firstly, to which of these language groups does English belong?

a) Baltic
b) Romance
c) Germanic
d) Slavonic

The correct answer is c) Germanic

2. In the sentence 'I took my big brown cat to the vet yesterday', which of the following does not appear?

a) Adjective
b) Preposition
c) Adverb
d) Conjunction

The correct answer is d) Conjunction

3. True or false: English has no inflections for grammatical case.

a) True
b) False

The correct answer is b) False

4. What is defined as 'the study of sentence structure'?

a) Morphology
b) Semantics
c) Phonology
d) Syntax

The correct answer is d) Syntax
5. Three of these languages do not have definite articles. Which one does have a structure that serves the purpose of a definite article?

a) Russian
b) Finnish
c) Latin
d) Swedish

The correct answer is d) Swedish
6. In dialectology, what is the line on a map called which divides areas with different forms of a word?

a) Isobar
b) Isogloss--
c) Isotherm
d) Isomer

The correct answer is b) Isogloss

7. The sounds of a language change over time. English spelling does not always reflect this change: how was the 'gh' in 'night' originally pronounced?

a) Like German 'ch' in 'ich', but voiced
b) Like English 'ch' in 'church'
c) Like English 'y' in 'yellow'
d) Like German 'ch' in 'ich'

The correct answer is d) Like German 'ch' in 'ich'

8. Which of these words describes the changing of the form of a verb in order to reflect person, number, tense and mood?

a) Declension
b) Inversion
c) Subordination
d) Conjugation

The correct answer is d) Conjugation

9. The combination of sounds 'ms-' is not acceptable as the beginning of a word or syllable in English. In which of these languages is it acceptable?

a) Dutch
b) French
c) Russian
d) Finnish

The correct answer is c) Russian
10. And finally... Old Norse is almost the same as which modern Scandinavian language?

a) Danish
b) Norwegian
c) Icelandic
d) Swedish

The correct answer is c) Icelandic

GK 64

1. Of what metal is the Victoria Cross made?

a) 18 carat gold
b) Cupro-nickel
c) Sterling silver
d) Bronze

The correct answer is d) Bronze

2. What is the inscription on the Victoria Cross?

a) For Gallantry
b) For Valour
c) For Bravery in the Field
d) For Conspicuous Gallantry

The correct answer is b) For Valour

3. Up to 2010, how many times had a bar to the Victoria Cross been awarded (for a second award)?

a) 2
b) 0
c) 3
d) 1

The correct answer is c) 3

4. Which gallantry medal was inaugurated by Napoleon Bonaparte in 1802?

a) The Croix de Guerre
b) The Croix de Merite
c) The Medaille Militaire
d) The Legion d'Honneur

The correct answer is d) The Legion d'Honneur

5. When was the Iron Cross instituted?

a) 1870
b) 1813
c) 1914
d) 1939

The correct answer is b) 1813

6. What was the earliest American decoration for conspicuous military service?

a) The Medal of Honor
b) The Navy Cross
c) The Silver Star
d) The Purple Heart

The correct answer is d) The Purple Heart

7. During which war was the US Medal of Honor instituted?

a) The Revolutionary War
b) The Civil War
c) The Spanish American War
d) The First World War

The correct answer is b) The Civil War

8. In the British Armed Forces what symbol on the medal ribbon denotes a mention in despatches?

a) Star
b) Rosette
c) Crossed Swords
d) Oak leaf

The correct answer is d) Oak leaf

9. What pre-Soviet Russian order was the only one to be awarded exclusively for gallantry?

a) St George
b) St Catherine
c) St Andrew
d) St Vladimir

The correct answer is a) St George

10. The Order of the Golden Kite was awarded to members of which country's armed forces?

a) India
b) China
c) Japan
d) Thailand

The correct answer is c) Japan

GK 63

1. The Indian Army has used tanks originally designed and built in many countries. Which of these countries has India never bought tanks or a license for production?

a) Germany
b) USSR/Russia
c) UK
d) France

The correct answer is a) Germany

2. What is the nickname of the Vickers MBT operated by the Indian Armor in the 1970s and 1980s?

a) Ajeya
b) Vijayanta
c) Bheesma
d) Sharath

The correct answer is b) Vijayanta
3. What is the name of the indigenously developed third generation anti-tank missile to be inducted into the Indian Army in the nest couple of years?

a) Nag
b) Arrow
c) Sagarika
d) Javelin

The correct answer is a) Nag

4. The military draft has been imposed 4 times in Independent India.

a) True
b) False

The correct answer is b) False

5. This regiment, raised in 1949, was the first all class regiment, made by combining the senior most battalions of four senior most infantry regiments. It is the most elite regiment of the Indian Army. Which regiment am I referring to?

a) Jammu Kashmir Light Infantry
b) Punjab Regiment
c) Mechanized Regiment
d) Brigade of the Guards

The correct answer is d) Brigade of the Guards
6. Which one is name after a region?

a) Jat Regiment
b) Punjab regiment
c) Maratha Light Infantry
d) Mahar Regiment

The correct answer is b) Punjab regiment
7. Which regiment has the honour of having the most number of Param Vir Chakra (India's highest medal for gallantry) awardees

a) Brigade of the Guards
b) Grenadiers Regiment
c) Punjab Regiment
d) Parachute Regiment

The correct answer is b) Grenadiers Regiment

8. This weapons system was under a cloud of controversy for the greater part of the 1990s costing Rajiv Gandhi the Prime Ministership, on allegations of corruption in the acqisition of these systems. However, the Kargil War in 1999 showed that these weapons systems were actually well worth the trouble.

a) T-90 Tanks
b) Dhruv helicopters
c) LCA fighters
d) Bofors guns

The correct answer is d) Bofors guns

9. Which is the oldest armoured regiment in the Indian Army?

a) 1 Horse
b) 2 Lancers
c) 1st Armoured Regiment
d) President's Bodyguards

The correct answer is d) President's Bodyguards

10. Who was appointed the Chief of Army Staff of the Indian Army in June 2005?

a) Bhupendra Singh Thakur
b) Mohinder Puri
c) Padam Pal Singh Bhandari
d) Joginder Jaswant Singh

The correct answer is d) Joginder Jaswant Singh

GK 62

1. What was the German invasion of the Soviet Union during World War Two named?

a) Valkyrie
b) Blitzkrieg
c) Barbarossa
d) Rasputin

The correct answer is c) Barbarossa

2. The US air raids on Libya in April 1986 were given what name?

a) Operation Desert Wind
b) Operation Red River
c) Operation Eagle Fury
d) Operation Eldorado Canyon

The correct answer is d) Operation Eldorado Canyon

3. When Germany unleashed its V-1 and V-2 terror weapons on Britain in World War Two the RAF responded with an operation to find and destroy the German V weapon bases. What was this operation named?

a) Operation Slingshot
b) Operation Longbow
c) Operation Crossbow
d) Operation Catapult

The correct answer is c) Operation Crossbow

4. Operation Yonatan saw Israeli forces swing into action on the 3rd July 1976 in an attempt to rescue airline passengers being held where?

a) Aden
b) Tripoli
c) Beirut
d) Entebbe

The correct answer is d) Entebbe

5. The US invasion of Grenada went by which name?

a) Operation Stingray
b) Operation Caribbean Cruise
c) Operation Urgent Fury
d) Operation Overkill

The correct answer is c) Operation Urgent Fury

6. The destruction of German trains in France and Germany during World War 2 was given what fairly obvious name?

a) Operation Thomas the Tank
b) Operation Take the Bus
c) Operation Locomotion
d) Operation Chattanooga Choo Choo

The correct answer is d) Operation Chattanooga Choo Choo

7. Operation Eagle Claw was the name given to which mission?

a) Rescuing US embassy staff held hostage in Iran
b) The strategic bombing of North Vietnam
c) The capture of Kuwait City
d) The invasion of Corsica

The correct answer is a) Rescuing US embassy staff held hostage in Iran

8. The planned German invasion of Britain during World War Two was given what code name?

a) Thor
b) Northern Lights
c) Sealion
d) Waterloo

The correct answer is c) Sealion

9. The United States invasion of Panama was given what name?

a) Operation El Dorado
b) Operation Pineapple Head
c) Operation Just Cause
d) Operation Transworld

The correct answer is c) Operation Just Cause

10. The Allied invasion of Northern Europe beginning with the Normandy landings became known as Operation ____?

a) Rolling Thunder
b) Stallion
c) Sabre
d) Overlord

The correct answer is d) Overlord

GK 61

1. What type of massage do you need, if you have had lymph glands removed after breast cancer surgery?

a) Pressure point therapy on arms
b) Lymphatic Drainage
c) Deep tissue therapy on arms
d) Foot reflexology

The correct answer is b) Lymphatic Drainage

2. A person has been told by the doctor that his blood sugar levels are heading towards borderline diabetes. What is the best nutritional plan that he should adopt to keep his blood sugar levels low?

a) All of these
b) Eat more fruits and vegetables
c) Cut out sugar and saturated fats
d) Eat more complex carbohydrate foods

The correct answer is a) All of these

3. Which out of the following choices is the best way to lose weight and keep it off?

a) All are equal in efficiency
b) Walk for 15 minutes twice a day
c) Walk 10 minutes three times a day
d) Walk 30 minutes a day in one session

The correct answer is a) All are equal in efficiency

4. A person has been gardening all day and he has complained of lower back soreness with pain radiating down one of his legs. What is most probably causing the pain?

a) Strained Trapezius muscle
b) Hairline fracture to a thoracic vertebra
c) Sciatica due to a strained piriformis muscle
d) Soft tissue damage to a quadriceps muscle

The correct answer is c) Sciatica due to a strained piriformis muscle

5. Health experts claim that people need six to eight glasses of water a day. If you eat fruits and vegetables, does this contribute to your daily water intake?

a) Yes
b) No

The correct answer is a) Yes

6. The best way to condition the body for optimal health and fitness, is to exercise regularly and increase the workload gradually. What shouldn't you do if you are following a weight training exercise program?

a) Have a one minute break between sets
b) Increase the sets depending on the type of program you are using
c) Increase the reps per set
d) Increase the load and the repetitions at the same time

The correct answer is d) Increase the load and the repetitions at the same time

7. A person who is obese, has uncontolled high blood pressure, uncontrolled diabetes and the flu, wants to lose weight and get fit. What should he do?

a) Swim a few laps of the pool slowly
b) Wait till the flu has gone and start his exercise program
c) Consult a physician first
d) Start exercising immediately

The correct answer is c) Consult a physician first

8. After performing in a 10 hour marathon consisting of cycling, swimming and running, an athlete often loses weight, his/her body becomes cold and he/she often starts cramping in the legs and arms. What is the best type of massage you would use straight after a 10 hour race?

a) Swedish relaxing massage
b) Post Performance Sports Massage
c) Deep Tissue therapy
d) Reflexology to the hands and feet

The correct answer is b) Post Performance Sports Massage

9. Golfer's elbow is a painful condition that affects the inner elbow and tennis elbow is said to be a problem with the outer part of the elbow. What body structure is involved if a person has Tennis elbow?

a) Olecranon process
b) Ligaments
c) Biccipital groove
d) Tendons

The correct answer is d) Tendons

10. Many females are not happy with their waistlines especially after giving birth. Stomach exercises will not only help firm the abdominal muscles but assist in burning up some of the excess fat. Which one of the following choices can actually increase the size of the waistline, compared to the other choices?

a) Swimming laps in the pool three times a week
b) Using gym equipment and increasing weights gradually
c) Riding a bike three times a week
d) Doing three sets of sit-ups with 15 reps each set three times a week

The correct answer is b) Using gym equipment and increasing weights gradually

GK 60

1. Forensic dentistry involves the study of teeth with the intention of providing facts to be used as evidence in court. What is another name for this field of study?

a) forensic anthropology
b) forensic odontology
c) forensic palynology
d) forensic entomology

The correct answer is b) forensic odontology

2. How many teeth does a human adult normally have?

a) 20
b) 28
c) 24
d) 32

The correct answer is d) 32

3. When skeletons are found, the teeth are an important source of information. In such cases, which of the following statements is the most accurate?

a) Teeth can indicate a person's occupation.
b) Teeth can indicate a person's age.
c) All three statements are true.
d) Teeth can indicate a person's ethnic background.

The correct answer is c) All three statements are true.

4. Teeth are harder than bone and are the last part of the body to be broken down or destroyed. Which component of the teeth is the hardest substance in the human body?

a) dentine
b) enamel
c) cementum
d) plaque

The correct answer is b) enamel

5. I am credited with making the earliest recorded case of dental identification. I lived in Ancient Rome around 15-59 AD. I was married to the Emperor Claudius. I ordered my soldiers to kill his mistress and bring me her head as proof of death. Who am I?

a) Messalina (third wife)
b) Aelia (second wife)
c) Agrippina (fourth wife)
d) Urgulanilla (first wife)

The correct answer is c) Agrippina (fourth wife)

6. I ascended the British throne in 1066 and was the first of the Norman kings. According to legend, the first use of bite-mark identification can be attributed to me. Who am I?

a) Henry I
b) King Norman
c) Richard I
d) William the Conqueror

The correct answer is d) William the Conqueror

7. Although I am more well-known as a silversmith who indulged in nocturnal horse-riding, I was also a practising dentist. I performed the first documented case of forensic dental identification in America. Who am I?

a) Benjamin Franklin
b) Paul Revere--
c) Abraham Lincoln
d) George Washington

The correct answer is b) Paul Revere

8. I was one of America's most infamous serial killers. At birth, my last name was Cowell, but from the age of 5, I was known by my stepfather's surname. Leaving bite-marks on the buttocks of one of my victims led to my conviction for murder. Who am I?

a) Albert De Salvo
b) John Wayne Gacy
c) Ted Bundy
d) Jeffrey Dahmer

The correct answer is c) Ted Bundy

9. One of Australia's most famous trials was the prosecution of Lindy Chamberlain for the murder of her daughter Azaria. The forensic evidence centred on blood and teeth-marks on the baby's clothing. The defence alleged the teeth-marks were made by what type of animal?

a) Tasmanian devil
b) kangaroo
c) wolf
d) dingo

The correct answer is d) dingo

10. Forensic dentistry is not used solely to catch criminals. It is a useful tool for investigating historic events. For example, scientists have been using forensic dentistry to solve which of the following questions?

a) Was Queen Elizabeth I of England really a male?
b) What killed George Washington?
c) Why was King George III insane?
d) Did the victims of the "Black Death" really die of plague?

The correct answer is d) Did the victims of the "Black Death" really die of plague?

GK 59

1. Who wrote the first treatise on the use of scientific methods in the field of criminal investigations?

a) Edmond Locard
b) Paul Jesrich
c) Francis Galton
d) Hans Gross

The correct answer is d) Hans Gross

2. Who was the person that developed fundamental principles of questioned document examination?

a) Paul Uhlenhuth
b) Hans Gross
c) Albert Osborn
d) August Vollmer

The correct answer is c) Albert Osborn

3. Who is considered the father of modern toxicology?

a) Alphonse Bertillon
b) Mathieu Orfila
c) Rudolf Adler
d) Alfred Dreyfus

The correct answer is b) Mathieu Orfila

4. Who is the person that is credited with revolutionizing the field of firearm examination by advancing the use of comparison microscopy?

a) James Marsh
b) William Nichol
c) Edmund Locard
d) Calvin Goddard

The correct answer is d) Calvin Goddard
5. Who studied the use of fingerprints for personal identification as well as developing the methodology for classifying them?

a) Calvin Goddard
b) Francis Galton
c) Walter Specht
d) Leone Lattes

The correct answer is b) Francis Galton
6. Who was the figure who developed a method for determining the ABO blood type of a dried bloodstain?

a) Hans Gross
b) Alfred Dreyfus
c) Paul Jesrich
d) Leone Lattes

The correct answer is d) Leone Lattes

7. Who set up the criminalistics program at the University of California at Berkeley in 1937?

a) Robert Oppenheimer
b) Albert Osborn
c) Walter Specht
d) Paul Kirk

The correct answer is d) Paul Kirk

8. Who developed the acid phosphatase test for semen?

a) Francis Galton
b) Frank Lundquist
c) Edmund Locard
d) Calvin Goddard

The correct answer is b) Frank Lundquist

9. Who first used the services of a scientist at a criminal trial in 1907?

a) Vincent Hnizda
b) Paul Kirk
c) August Vollmer
d) Clarence Darrow

The correct answer is c) August Vollmer

10. Who developed the absorption-elution test for ABO blood typing of stains in 1923?

a) James Marsh
b) Calvin Goddard
c) Vincent Hnizda
d) Vittorio Siracusa

The correct answer is d) Vittorio Siracusa

GK 58

1. Entomology as a tool to solving criminal cases was first used by this man.

a) Paolo Zacchia
b) Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
c) Song Ci
d) Ambroise Pare

The correct answer is c) Song Ci
2. What can forensic entomology be used to determine?

a) Time of death
b) Neglect of the elderly
c) Location of death
d) All of these

The correct answer is d) All of these

3. What are the three subdivisions of forensic entomology?

a) Blood spatter, trace evidence, toxicology
b) Medicolegal, urban, and stored product pests
c) Epistemology, osteology, insect proliferation
d) Human adaptation, necrophagia, serological impact

The correct answer is b) Medicolegal, urban, and stored product pests
4. What insects are the first to appear on the dead?

a) Beetles
b) Ants
c) Mites
d) Flies

The correct answer is d) Flies
5. How would a forensic entomologist define a "flyspeck"?

a) Minute larvae from fly infestation
b) Tracking of pooled blood by flies
c) The feces from a fly that has fed on blood
d) Any kind of a small discoloration found at the crime scene

The correct answer is c) The feces from a fly that has fed on blood
6. Can DNA technology be utilized in forensic entomology?

a) Yes - but only to determine species of insect
b) No - the DNA absorbed by an insect is too minute for analysis
c) No - the DNA is destroyed by the insect's digestive tract
d) Yes - to determine insect species and/or human DNA from victim or suspect if the insect fed on the individual

The correct answer is d) Yes - to determine insect species and/or human DNA from victim or suspect if the insect fed on the individual
7. Weather is a factor in the forensic entomologist's determination of time of death.

a) True
b) False

The correct answer is a) True
8. What method of forensic entomology is used to determine time since death when the corpse has been dead from one month to a year or more?

a) Accumulated degree hour technique
b) Maggot age and development
c) Successional waves of insects
d) Questioned epistemological examination

The correct answer is c) Successional waves of insects

9. Entomological evidence cannot determine the presence and position of wounds.

a) True
b) False

The correct answer is b) False

10. Which of these insects are considered to be late stage scavengers?

a) Macrocheles mites
b) Hide beetles
c) Hister beetles
d) Devil's coach-horse beetles

The correct answer is b) Hide beetles

GK 57

1. Which one of these is NOT a class characteristic of a fingerprint?

a) Whorl
b) Tented Arch
c) Loop
d) Bifurcation

The correct answer is d) Bifurcation

2. Forensic Science is the Science pertaining to what?

a) Fingerprints
b) Murder
c) Law
d) Medicine

The correct answer is c) Law

3. True / False: Fingerprint evidence is infallible.

a) True
b) False

The correct answer is b) False

4. SOCO stands for?

a) Special Officers to Catch Offenders
b) Services of Criminal Offences
c) Scene of Crime Officer
d) Special Officer in Criminal Offences

The correct answer is c) Scene of Crime Officer

5. True / False: DNA is stored in the white blood cell component of blood.

a) True
b) False

The correct answer is a) True

6. Which one of these is NOT a presumptive test for blood?

a) O-Tol
b) Hemastix / Sangur Strips
c) Acid Phosphatase
d) Luminol

The correct answer is c) Acid Phosphatase

7. True / False: Value of soil as evidence resides with its prevalence at crime scenes and its transferability between the scene and the criminal.

a) True
b) False

The correct answer is a) True

8. True / False: The order of examination of fingerprints is: Analysis, Comparison, Verification, Evaluation.

a) True
b) False

The correct answer is b) False

9. What is the name of the light source that is commonly used in Forensic Investigation?

a) PoliLight
b) PoliLuminescence
c) LaserLight
d) LaserLumination

The correct answer is a) PoliLight

GK 56

1. Ted Bundy was an American serial killer who was convicted on the basis of which type of forensic evidence?

a) DNA fingerprinting
b) Ballistics
c) Latent fingerprinting
d) Bite marks

The correct answer is d) Bite marks
2. In October 1974 part of a male torso was found floating in the River Thames in England. Several parts, including the head and hands, were missing so police could not use the usual methods of fingerprints, facial features and dental records to identify the corpse. How was it eventually identified?

a) Presence of gallstones
b) All the choices are correct
c) Blood type
d) Skeletal characteristics demonstrated on x-ray

The correct answer is b) All the choices are correct

3. The time of death can be calculated by various means. One is rigor mortis, Latin for 'the stiffness of death'. Another indication is livor mortis or lividity. What does this term refer to?
a) Cloudiness in the eyes
b) Relaxation of muscles susbequent to rigor mortis
c) Degree of digestion of stomach contents
d) Gravitational pooling of blood

The correct answer is b) All the choices are correct

4. Lord Louis Mountbatten, a cousin of Queen Elizabeth II, was blown to pieces in 1979 when an IRA bomb exploded on his yacht. How did police link the murderer, Thomas McMahon, to the crime scene?

a) Matching paint samples
b) All the choices are correct
c) Matching sand samples
d) Trace evidence of nitroglycerine

The correct answer is b) All the choices are correct

5. When attempting to identify a skeleton, craniofacial morphology (the structure and form of the skull and face) is the best indicator of race. One group of human beings has a unique, rounded jaw bone which is called a 'rocker jaw'. This is a characteristic of which ethnic group?

a) Australian Aborigines
b) Hawaiians--
c) African Americans
d) Chinese

The correct answer is b) Hawaiians

6. In 1835, Henry Goddard was asked to investigate a burglary in Southampton, England. The butler said a shot had been fired as he struggled with the burglars. Goddard retrieved the bullet and disproved the butler’s version of events by using which technique?

a) Bullet comparison
b) Studying the broken glass
c) Studying the bullet's trajectory
d) Blood spatter analysis

The correct answer is a) Bullet comparison

7. In Knoxville, Tennessee, there is a research facility, popularly known as 'the Body Farm', where research is conducted into the nature of human decomposition and the factors which affect the rate at which it occurs. Who was responsible for the creation of this facility?

a) Gil Grissom
b) Ernest T Bass
c) William Bass
d) William (Bill) Clinton

The correct answer is c) William Bass

8. It is the function of a coroner to conduct inquiries into all deaths which are not natural or expected. However, originally the job of coroner was to perform which of the following functions?

a) Safeguarding the monarch's property
b) Tax collector
c) All the choices are correct
d) Trying felony cases

The correct answer is c) All the choices are correct

9. What is studied in forensic palynology?

a) Fossilised micro-organisms
b) Soils
c) Pollens and spores
d) Dust

The correct answer is c) Pollens and spores

10. If you know what to look for, you can tell a male from a female skull. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a) The male skull is usually larger
b) The male skull has a more prominent brow ridge
c) The male skull has a heavier jaw
d) The male skull has a more rounded chin

The correct answer is d) The male skull has a more rounded chin

GK 55

1. A polysaccharide made from seaweed used to culture bacteria and fungi.

a) agamete
b) agar
c) agglutin
d) agent

The correct answer is b) agar
2. A marsh at the inlet or outlet of a lake or a river.

a) batholith
b) basin
c) bead
d) bayou

The correct answer is d) bayou

3. A waxy membrane near the nostrils on the beak of some birds.

a) centriole
b) cephalin
c) cere
d) cercaria

The correct answer is c) cere

4. A generator. It normally creates direct current electricity.

a) durain
b) dyad
c) duramen
d) dynamo

The correct answer is d) dynamo

5. Illness found primarily among certain group of people or plants and found primarily in one region.

a) endarch
b) endemic
c) enantiomorph
d) encrinite

The correct answer is b) endemic

6. A unit of frequency equal to 1 trillion Hertz.

a) frill
b) fresnel
c) frond
d) frenum

The correct answer is b) fresnel

7. Small granular pellets of snow due to riming (adding a thin layer of ice due to condensation then freezing of water vapor.)

a) gravid
b) graticule
c) graupel
d) gravel

The correct answer is c) graupel

8. The unit of inductance when a current varies at 1 ampere/second and creates an EMF of 1 volt

a) henry
b) herb
c) heparin
d) heptad

The correct answer is a) henry

9. A number smaller than any positive magnitude yet larger than zero.

a) infradian
b) inferior
c) infinitesimal
d) infinity

The correct answer is c) infinitesimal

10. An exceedingly hot wind from the Sahara Desert that blows into Egypt (usually) in the spring.

a) kieselguhr
b) ketone
c) khamsin
d) kettle

The correct answer is c) khamsin

GK 54

1. The Panavia Tornado was a consortium between which three countries?

a) Great Britain, Italy and Germany
b) Germany, Sweden and France
c) Great Britain, Germany and Sweden
d) France, Italy and Great Britain

The correct answer is a) Great Britain, Italy and Germany

2. On what date did the prototype of the Dassault-Breguet Mirage III fly?

a) 13th February 1960
b) 13th November 1956
c) 17th November 1956
d) 13th February 1957

The correct answer is c) 17th November 1956

3. The Dassault-Breguet Mirage 2000B has how many seats?

a) One
b) Four
c) Three
d) Two

The correct answer is d) Two

4. What is the NATO code name for the MIG 21 jet fighter?

a) Fishbed
b) Flogger
c) Fishfood
d) Foxbat

The correct answer is a) Fishbed

5. What is the NATO code name for the Sukhoi Su-15 jet fighter?

a) Flagon
b) Falcon
c) Fiddler
d) Force

The correct answer is a) Flagon

6. The Tupolev Tu-128 "Fiddler" has how many engines?

a) Four
b) One
c) Two
d) Three

The correct answer is c) Two

7. The JA37 Viggen is manufactured by whom?

a) Panavia
b) Saab
c) Ford
d) Cadillac

The correct answer is b) Saab

8. The McDonnell Douglas F-15 is known as the what?

a) Beagle
b) Eagle
c) Legal
d) Devil

The correct answer is b) Eagle

9. The McDonnell Douglas F-4 Phantom could achieve a top speed in excess of Mach 2.

a) True
b) False

The correct answer is a) True

10. Which country produces the IAI Kfir?

a) USA
b) Israel
c) UK
d) Russia

The correct answer is b) Israel

GK 53

1. What is the primary function of the McDonnell Douglas F-15C?

a) Light bomber
b) Reconnaissance
c) Heavy bomber
d) Air-to-air interceptor

The correct answer is d) Air-to-air interceptor

2. What is the primary function of the Lockheed SR-71 Blackbird?

a) Search-and-rescue
b) Heavy bomber
c) Reconnaissance
d) Close air support

The correct answer is c) Reconnaissance

3. What is the primary function of the McDonnell Douglas F-15E Strike Eagle?

a) Heavy bomber
b) Air-to-ground attack aircraft
c) Tactical fighter
d) Interceptor

The correct answer is b) Air-to-ground attack aircraft

4. What is the primary function of the Lockheed F-16 Fighting Falcon?

a) Multirole fighter
b) Interceptor
c) Heavy bomber
d) Air-to-ground attack aircraft

The correct answer is a) Multirole fighter

5. What is the primary function of the Mikoyan-Gurevich MiG-25P Foxbat-A?

a) Interceptor
b) Bomber
c) Air superiority fighter
d) Air-to-ground attack aircraft

The correct answer is a) Interceptor

6. What is the primary function of the Mikoyan-Gurevich MiG-21 Fishbed?

a) Heavy bomber
b) Fighter/interceptor
c) Close air support
d) Air-to-ground attack aircraft

The correct answer is b) Fighter/interceptor

7. What is the primary function of the Boeing F/A-18C Hornet?

a) Multirole attack/fighter
b) Interceptor
c) Long-range bomber
d) Trainer

The correct answer is a) Multirole attack/fighter

8. What is the primary function of the Sukhoi Su-27 Flanker?

a) Multirole fighter
b) Interceptor
c) Strategic bomber
d) Close air support

The correct answer is a) Multirole fighter

9. What is the primary function of the Fairchild A-10 Thunderbolt II?

a) Search-and-rescue
b) Fighter/attack
c) Close air support
d) Heavy bomber

The correct answer is c) Close air support

10. What is the primary function of the Boeing B-1B Lancer?

a) Air-to-ground attack aircraft
b) Heavy bomber
c) Interceptor
d) Search-and-rescue

The correct answer is b) Heavy bomber

GK 52

1. Who is generally credited with the first serious scientific claim that manufacturing on the molecular or even the atomic scale was possible? The claim was made at California Technical Institute and was called, "There's Plenty of Room at the Bottom".

a) Richard P. Feynman
b) Ed Regis
c) K. Eric Drexler
d) Ralph Merkle

The correct answer is a) Richard P. Feynman

2. In 1986, Dr. K. Eric Drexler published a book for the layman that gave a wide overview of the potential applications of molecular nanotechnology in such areas as computing, medicine, space science, and the military. What was the name of this ground-breaking book?

a) Smaller is Better
b) Engines of Creation
c) A Crowded Blueprint
d) The Atomic Cookbook

The correct answer is b) Engines of Creation
3. A particular molecule of carbon made up of sixty carbon atoms has received some press as a structure that shows promise as a basic building block in the area of molecular manufacturing. What is the whimsical nontechnical name for these molecules?


a) Fullerrods
b) Nanonodes
c) Buckyballs
d) Nanocubes

The correct answer is c) Buckyballs

4. What is the general name for the class of structures made of rolled up carbon lattices?

a) Nanorods
b) Nanotubes
c) Nanosheets
d) Fullerrods

The correct answer is b) Nanotubes

5. Nano, as a prefix, denotes what order of magnitude?

a) 10^-6
b) 10^-3
c) 10^-12
d) 10^-9

The correct answer is d) 10^-9

6. What is the term used in the field of nanotechnology to describe an as-yet theoretical device that "will be able to bond atoms together in virtually any stable pattern?"

a) Stacker
b) Replicator
c) Assembler
d) Constructor

The correct answer is c) Assembler

7. In discussions of the potential of molecular nanotechnology, the possibility has been posited that badly or maliciously designed self-assembling structures could get out of control, and destroy or disassemble all structures they encounter in their blind quest to replicate. What is the term for such a structure or group of structures?

a) Blue goo
b) Green Goo
c) Red goo
d) Gray goo

The correct answer is d) Gray goo

8. Scientists discussing the potential of molecular nanotechnology realized the possibility that self-assembling molecular constructs could conceivably get out of control and destroy just about anything. This led to the concept that other constructs could be designed to neutralize and/or destroy the rogue substances before they got out of hand. By what colorful term are these theoretical "antibody" substances collectively known?

a) Gray goo
b) Green goo
c) Red goo
d) Blue goo

The correct answer is d) Blue goo

9. Many challenges exist to be overcome before molecular manufacturing can truly reach maturity as an applied science. Which of the following is such a challenge when designing molecular machinery?

a) Thermal noise
b) Complexity of design
c) Quantum fluctuation
d) All of these

The correct answer is d) All of these

10. As of public record at the end of 2002, which country was making the greatest annual investment in molecular nanotechnology research?

a) Russia
b) United States
c) Japan
d) South Korea

The correct answer is c) Japan

GK 51

1. Where in the world would you pay a tax on blueberries?

a) Nova Scotia
b) Maine
c) Ontario
d) Vermont

The correct answer is b) Maine

2. On March 31, 1990, hundreds and thousands of Brits engaged in violent protest against a new tax. What kind of tax was it?

a) Tax on conkers
b) Beer tax
c) Divorce tax
d) Poll tax

The correct answer is d) Poll tax

3. The American income tax filing deadline is April 15, and Canadians have until April 30 to get their returns in. Consequently, the April air in North America is filled with moaning and groaning about tax burdens. To hear them tell it, they pay the highest taxes anywhere; but they don't. In 2009, who will shell out the most in income taxes?

a) Swedes
b) Danes
c) Brits
d) French

The correct answer is b) Danes
4. If you don't want to pay any tax on income, you call the movers and head for which European state?

a) Bulgaria
b) Monaco
c) Russia
d) Ukraine

The correct answer is b) Monaco

5. Tsar Peter the Great (Peter I) was determined to drag Russia out of the Middle Ages into modern times and embarked on re-organizing the entire country into what he determined to be a civilized state. To pay for all the improvements, he invented all sorts of new taxes, one of the strangest of which was...

a) A tax on beards
b) A tax on embroidery
c) A tax on troikas
d) A tax on borscht

The correct answer is a) A tax on beards

6. In North Carolina you are required to pay a tax on illegal drugs.

a) True
b) False

The correct answer is a) True

7. In which country would you have paid a window tax in the 17th century?

a) Spain
b) Italy
c) The Netherlands
d) England

The correct answer is d) England

GK 50

1. Part of the largest of the Galapagos Islands lays directly on the Equator. What is the name of this island?

a) Ferdinand Island
b) Isabela Island
c) Catherine Island
d) Santa Cruz

The correct answer is b) Isabela Island
2. In which country does the equator pass some 32km south of the capital, Kampala?

 a) Gabon
 b) Kenya
 c) Uganda
 d) Tanzania

The correct answer is c) Uganda

3. Which African lake, named for a British Queen, does the Equator pass through?

 a) Lake Victoria
 b) Lake Adelaide
 c) Lake Elizabeth
 d) Lake Berengaria

The correct answer is a) Lake Victoria
4. In South America the Equator is close to Quito, capital of Ecuador. In which mountain range is this situated?

a) The Andes
b) The Appenines
c) The Rockies
d) The Ozarks

The correct answer is a) The Andes

5. If the Equator divides the world into Northern and Southern Hemispheres what is the name of the line that divides it into Eastern and Western Hemispheres?

a) Tropic of Cancer
b) The Prime Meridian
c) Tropic of Capricorn
d) The Time Line

The correct answer is b) The Prime Meridian

6. In east Africa there is a country that sits on the Equator and is famous for its animal-rich national parks. Which country is this?

a) Uganda
b) Kenya
c) South Sudan
d) Ethiopia

The correct answer is b) Kenya

7. This equatorial country in South America has many industries, but is sadly famous for its cocaine trade. Its capital city is Bogota. What's the name of the country?

a) Panama
b) Colombia
c) Venezuela
d) Chile

The correct answer is b) Colombia

8. This country is Africa's second smallest nation and lies very close to the Equator, off the coast of Gabon in the Gulf of Guinea. Formerly a Portuguese colony, its main exports are coffee and cocoa. What is its name?

a) Equatorial Guinea
b) The Maldives
c) Sao Tome and Principe
d) Biafra

The correct answer is c) Sao Tome and Principe

9. The next equatorial country is found in South America and is the 5th largest country in the world. Its official language is Portuguese and it has one of the world's fastest growing economies. If I tell you that one of its most famous landmarks is Sugar Loaf Mountain, can you tell me which country this is?

a) Suriname
b) Ecuador
c) Brazil
d) Uruguay

The correct answer is c) Brazil
10. Pontianak, in the Republic of Indonesia, lies almost exactly on the equator. On which of this country's many islands is it located? (Hint: It is the third biggest island in the world.

a) Sumatra
b) Bali
c) Borneo
d) Singapore

The correct answer is c) Borneo

GK 49

1. Heaviest satellite (natural) of our solar system:
   
a) Ganymede
b) Sinope
c) Moon
d) Deimo

The correct answer is a) Ganymede

2. Largest bay (in terms of area):

a) Cape of Good Hope
b) Cardigan Bay
c) San Diego Bay
d) Bay of Bengal

The correct answer is d) Bay of Bengal

3. Largest bay (in terms of shoreline length):
   
a) San Diego Bay
b) Bay of Bengal
c) Cardigan Bay
d) Hudson Bay

The correct answer is d) Hudson Bay

4. Satellite closest to the parent planet:
   
a) Moon
b) Enceladus
c) Phobos
d) Charon

The correct answer is c) Phobos

5. Satellite farthest from the parent planet:
   
a) Charon
b) Hyperion
c) Sinope
d) Titan

The correct answer is c) Sinope

6. Largest satellite (natural) of our solar system:
   
a) Ganymede
b) Moon
c) Phobos
d) Sinope

The correct answer is a) Ganymede

7. Largest sea :

a) Dead Sea
b) South China Sea
c) Red Sea
d) Mediterranean Sea

The correct answer is b) South China Sea

8. Hottest planet of our solar system:
   
a) Mars
b) Earth
c) Mercury
d) Venus

The correct answer is d) Venus

9. Nearest star to the Earth:

 a) Alpha Centauri
 b) Sun
 c) Pole Star
 d) Proxima Centauri

The correct answer is  b) Sun

10. Nearest star to the Earth (other than the Sun):

a) Proxima Centauri
b) Great Bear
c) Dog Star
d) Andromeda
 
The correct answer is a) Proxima Centauri

GK 48

1. Captain Kirk of the Starship Enterprise hung up his "phaser" and "tricorder" to help which internet search site beam up tourists?

a) Cheaptickets
b) Orbitz
c) Priceline
d) Travelocity

The correct answer is c) Priceline

2. Garden gnomes are funny looking creatures but they proved to be successful marketers for which of the following online travel companies?

a) Orbitz
b) Travelocity
c) Travelwire
d) Cheapotickets

The correct answer is b) Travelocity

3. Which of the following watersport "boats" gave its name to a major internet travel company?

a) Kayak
b) Surfski
c) Canoe
d) Catamaran

The correct answer is a) Kayak

4. Which of the following internet travel search companies was first started by microsoft in 1996 and in the first decade of the 21st century was the largest provider of hotel bookings in the world?

a) Travelocity
b) Travelscape
c) Orbitz
d) Expedia

The correct answer is d) Expedia
5. Which of the following companies, based in Waltham Massachusetts, enjoyed success marketing discount online travel services to college students and professors?

a) LeapFrog
b) CollegeFares
c) StudentUniverse
d) WorldTravel

The correct answer is c) StudentUniverse

6. Which of the following internet travel companies publicly traded on the New York Stock Exchange as the ticker symbol OWW?

a) Orion
b) Orbitz
c) OnWest
d) OctopusWorldWide

The correct answer is b) Orbitz

7. Which of the following was NOT an internet-based travel company found online at the turn of the century (in the year 2000)?

a) www.cheaptickets.com
b) www.cheapertravel.com
c) www.cheapoair.com
d) www.cheapstudentstravel.com

The correct answer is d) www.cheapstudentstravel.com

8. Which of the following "monkey-moniker" companies offered internet travel services online?

a) airchimpanzee.com
b) airbaboon.com
c) airlemur.com
d) airgorilla.com

The correct answer is d) airgorilla.com
9. Which of the following internet-travel companies employed several hundred "Deal Experts" whose job it was to research, negotiate, and evaluate best travel deals worldwide?

a) Travelschool
b) Travelzoo
c) Travelmall
d) Travelpark

The correct answer is b) Travelzoo

10. Which of the following internet travel companies was originally code-named "Purple Demon" before its initial launch?

a) Orbitz
b) Priceline
c) Travelocity
d) Hotwire

The correct answer is d) Hotwire

GK 47

1. Which major U.S. oil company at one time filed for bankruptcy as the result of a suit brought against it by Pennzoil?

a) Shell
b) Texaco
c) Gulf
d) Exxon

The correct answer is b) Texaco

2. Who wrote the book 'Liar's Poker'?

a) Michael Milken
b) Michael Lewis
c) Nick Leeson
d) Michael Dell

The correct answer is b) Michael Lewis

3. What is the ticker symbol for Lucent Technologies?

a) LU
b) L
c) LCNT
d) LUC

The correct answer is a) LU

4. Which of the following activities would you most expect an 'Investment Banker' to take part in?

 a) Work with clients to structure a portfolio for retirement
 b) Make stock picks
 c) Write research on companies
 d) Buy and sell companies

The correct answer is d) Buy and sell companies

5. Andy Grove is most closely associated with which of the following companies?

a) Intel
b) IBM
c) General Motors
d) Exxon

The correct answer is a) Intel

6. Which of the following products is not manufactured by Philip Morris?

a) Post Cereal
b) Kraft
c) Miller Beer
d) Little Debbie Snack Cakes

The correct answer is d) Little Debbie Snack Cakes

7. Which of the following companies is not based in Atlanta, GA?

a) Georgia Pacific
b) Delta Air Lines
c) FedEx
d) Home Depot

The correct answer is c) FedEx
8. In 2001, what is the maximum amount of money that an employee could contribute to a 401k fund annually?

a) $30,000
b) No dollar limit, just 15 per cent of income up to any amount
c) $2,000
d) $10,500

The correct answer is d) $10,500

9. What does 'IPO' stand for?

a) Internet Public Offering
b) Investor Public Offering
c) Initial Private Offering
d) Initial Public Offering

The correct answer is b) Investor Public Offering

10. Vice President Dick Cheney used to be CEO of which company?

a) Halliburton
b) Exxon
c) Texaco
d) BJ Services

The correct answer is a) Halliburton

GK 46

1. On which route is the longest railway tunnel of about 6.5 km situated?
   
a)  Central Railway
b) Konkan Railway
c) Southern Railway
d) Western Railway

The correct answer is b) Konkan Railway

2. Who is the first woman railway driver?
    
a) Rajashree Sachdev
b) Bhavani Kumari
c) Ritu Chauhan
d) Surekha Yadav


The correct answer is d) Surekha Yadav

3. Name the luxury train launched by the Indian Railways to celebrate the country's 50 years of independence.
   
a) Rajdhani Express
b) Swarna Shatabdi
c) Golden Globe Express
d) Azadi Express

The correct answer is b) Swarna Shatabdi

4. Which country has the highest railway line in the world? 
    
a) Tanggula
b) Australia
c) India
d) Japan

The correct answer is a) Tanggula

5. The world's longest railway platform is in India. In which state is it?

a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) West Bengal
d) Punjab

The correct answer is c) West Bengal

6. Which is the only country to have a fully electrified railway network?
    
a) Japan
b) China
c) India
d) Switzerland

The correct answer is d) Switzerland

7. How many years of its existence did the Indian Railways celebrate in the year 2002-2003?
   
a) 50
b) 150
c) 25
d) 100

The correct answer is b) 150

8. After Kolkata, which city in India started a metro railway?
    
a) New Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Bangalore
Hyderabad

The correct answer is a) New Delhi

9. Mumbai has the world's busiest suburban railway network. Name it.
    
a) Western Line
b) Harbour Line
c) Central Line
d) Eastern Line

The correct answer is c) Central Line

10. One of these trains connects Mumbai and Aurangabad. Name it.
   
a) Sabarmati Express
b) Deviri Express
c) Ashram Express
d) Janata Express

The correct answer is b) Deviri Express